A 62-year-old who has had asthma since childhood smoked for 40 pack-years and quit last year. He reviews his spirometry results (shown) with the asthma educator. Which explanation by the educator is most accurate?
| Measure | Pre-bronchodilator | Post-bronchodilator |
|---|---|---|
| FEV1 | 1.60 L | 1.78 L |
| FEV1 (% predicted) | 55% | 61% |
| FEV1/FVC | 0.58 | 0.60 |
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
- Change in FEV1 = 1.78 L − 1.60 L = 0.18 L = 180 mL.
- Percent change = 0.18 ÷ 1.60 × 100 = 11.25%, about 11%.
- A significant bronchodilator response needs both ≥12% and ≥200 mL; neither is met.
- Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC 0.60 remains reduced → persistent airflow limitation consistent with asthma–COPD overlap features.
"The bronchodilator response is significant, which confirms the problem is asthma alone.": The increase is 180 mL and 11%, below the 12% and 200 mL threshold, so it is not a significant response.
"Your ratio after the bronchodilator is normal, so smoking has not affected your airways.": A post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC of 0.60 is reduced and shows persistent airflow limitation.
"Because the airways barely opened, inhaled medicines will no longer help you and can be stopped.": Limited reversibility does not mean inhaled therapy is ineffective; treatment decisions belong to the clinician.
"Your airflow stays limited after the inhaler, which can happen when asthma and COPD features overlap.": Correct — the FEV1 rose by only 180 mL (11%) and the post-bronchodilator ratio stays low; persistent airflow limitation in a long-term smoker with asthma suggests overlapping COPD features, which the clinician will use in treatment planning.
A significant bronchodilator response is an FEV1 rise of at least 12% and 200 mL from baseline; persistent post-bronchodilator obstruction in a smoker with asthma suggests overlapping COPD.