AMB-BC Practice Questions (2026) — Free Sample Questions with Answers

6 free AMB-BC questions from our 25-question bank, grouped by content domain. Each answer explains why the right option is right — and why every wrong option is wrong.

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Assess and Evaluate

Question 1

A 34-year-old man completes the PHQ-9 at a primary care visit. His total score is 16, and he marks 'more than half the days' for thoughts that he would be better off dead or of hurting himself. What should the nurse do next?

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Answer: B

Place a behavioral health referral and schedule a follow-up visit in 2 weeks: A referral is appropriate later, but it skips the immediate safety assessment that a positive item 9 requires.

Ask directly about suicidal thoughts, a plan, means and intent today: Correct. A positive item 9 needs same-visit suicide risk assessment (ideation, plan, access to means, intent, protective factors) to decide how urgent the next step must be.

Tell the provider the score so an antidepressant can be prescribed at this visit: Medication may be part of treatment, but safety assessment comes first; prescribing does not address immediate risk.

Give him a crisis hotline number and suggest he call if the thoughts get worse: Crisis resources are useful, but giving a number without assessing current risk could send a high-risk patient home unprotected.

Any positive answer to PHQ-9 item 9 triggers a direct, same-visit suicide risk assessment; asking about suicide does not increase risk.

Question 2

A 58-year-old man calls the clinic nurse line. For the past 20 minutes he has had heavy chest pressure that spreads to his jaw, with sweating and nausea. He says he can drive himself to the clinic in about 15 minutes. What is the nurse's most appropriate instruction?

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Answer: B

Offer him the next available same-day appointment slot: Possible acute coronary syndrome is an emergency-level disposition. Waiting for a clinic visit delays reperfusion and the clinic cannot provide emergency care.

Hang up and call 911 for emergency transport now: Correct. Chest pressure radiating to the jaw with diaphoresis and nausea fits ACS. Telephone triage protocols direct the caller to activate EMS so that ECG, monitoring and defibrillation are available on the way.

Have a family member drive him to the nearest ED: Private-vehicle transport loses prehospital ECG, monitoring and defibrillation if he develops a lethal arrhythmia, and it delays cath lab activation.

Rest for 15 minutes and call back if pain persists: Watchful waiting is unsafe with symptoms of ACS; myocardium is lost with every minute of delay.

In telephone triage, symptoms that suggest a life-threatening problem (ACS, stroke, anaphylaxis) get an emergency disposition: activate EMS, never self-transport or wait.

Plan and Implement

Question 3

A 71-year-old woman with diabetes has a shallow, irregular ulcer above the medial malleolus, with hemosiderin staining and leg edema. The provider suspects a venous leg ulcer and wants multilayer compression started. Pedal pulses are hard to palpate because of edema. What should the nurse obtain before applying compression?

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Answer: C

A wound culture to rule out infection: Routine swab cultures are not needed before compression without clinical signs of infection, and they do not address the safety risk.

A serum albumin to judge healing: Nutrition matters for healing, but it does not decide whether compression is safe to apply.

An ankle-brachial index to check arterial flow: Correct. Compression on a leg with significant arterial disease can cause ischemia. An ABI (often with toe pressures in diabetes, since calcified vessels can falsely raise the ABI) must confirm adequate arterial flow first.

A venous duplex ultrasound to look for a deep vein clot: Duplex imaging maps venous reflux and can find DVT, but it does not assess the arterial perfusion that decides whether compression is safe.

Rule out arterial insufficiency (ABI, plus toe pressures when vessels may be calcified) before compression therapy for a leg ulcer.

Professional Role

Question 4

At the start of the day, a clinic nurse finds that the vaccine refrigerator's digital data logger recorded temperatures of 11°C for 5 hours overnight. The unit now reads 5°C. What should the nurse do first with the vaccines in that unit?

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Answer: D

Use them today, because the refrigerator is back within its range: A return to range does not undo an excursion; vaccine potency may already be lost and must be assessed first.

Discard every vaccine at once and order a full replacement supply: Discarding right away may waste viable vaccine; the manufacturer or immunization program decides whether doses can still be used.

Move them to the freezer to make up for the period of warm storage: Freezing damages refrigerated vaccines; the excursion cannot be 'reversed' by cold.

Label them 'Do Not Use,' keep them at 2-8°C and contact the maker: Correct. CDC guidance: quarantine the affected vaccines at proper temperature, record the excursion data, and contact the manufacturer and/or the immunization program before using or discarding them.

Temperature excursion: label 'Do Not Use,' keep stored correctly, document, and get manufacturer/program guidance before any use or disposal.

Question 5

A practice plans to bill Medicare for non-complex Chronic Care Management (CCM) services provided by nurses between visits. Which patient situation meets the core CCM requirements?

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Answer: B

A patient recovering from a hip fracture who expects full recovery in 6 weeks and agrees to monthly calls: CCM requires chronic conditions expected to last at least 12 months or until death; a short, time-limited recovery does not qualify.

A patient with heart failure and diabetes who has given consent and gets 20 minutes of staff time a month: Correct. CCM needs two or more chronic conditions expected to last at least 12 months that put the patient at significant risk, documented patient consent, a care plan, and at least 20 minutes of clinical staff time per calendar month for the base code.

A patient with well-controlled hypertension only who sees the provider twice a year and accepts outreach: One chronic condition is not enough for CCM; the code requires two or more chronic conditions.

A patient with COPD and depression who has never been asked about the service but receives 30 minutes of calls: Two qualifying conditions are not enough: CMS requires the patient's informed consent, partly because cost sharing applies.

Medicare CCM: ≥2 chronic conditions expected to last ≥12 months, documented consent, comprehensive care plan, and ≥20 minutes of clinical staff time per calendar month (CPT 99490).

Education

Question 6

A patient approaches the desk, visibly angry: "I've waited 50 minutes past my appointment time and no one has told me anything!" Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic?

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Answer: A

"You're right, waiting that long without an update is frustrating. Let me find out where things stand for you.": Correct. Acknowledging the feeling validates the patient and de-escalates, and offering concrete action rebuilds trust.

"Everyone in the waiting room is in the same position today, so please take a seat and be patient with us.": This dismisses the patient's feelings and comparing him with others tends to escalate anger.

"The provider had an emergency this morning, and you'll need to understand that these delays can't be avoided.": An explanation may help later, but leading with justification and 'you'll need to understand' sounds defensive and ignores his feelings.

"If you raise your voice in the clinic again, I will have to call security to come and help resolve this.": Threatening security is premature for verbal frustration without threats and is likely to escalate the situation.

De-escalation: acknowledge emotion, listen, then offer specific action; avoid defending, dismissing or threatening.

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