BOC AT Practice Questions (2026) — Free Sample Questions with Answers

Answer: A

One practice per day of no more than three hours; helmets only on days one and two: Correct. During days one to five athletes practice once a day for no more than three hours, wear helmets only on days one and two, and add shoulder pads on days three to five.

Two practices per day totaling no more than five hours; helmets and shoulder pads from day one: Double-practice days are not permitted until day six, and shoulder pads are not added until day three.

One practice per day of no more than three hours; full protective equipment from day three: Full protective equipment and contact do not begin until day six; days three to five allow helmets and shoulder pads only.

Two practices on alternating days; helmets only on days one through three: No double-practice days are allowed in days one to five, and helmet-only practice is limited to days one and two.

Heat acclimatization in the first five days limits athletes to one practice a day of three hours or less, with equipment added gradually (helmets, then shoulder pads, full gear on day six).

Answer: C

4:20 p.m.: This counts 30 minutes from the first lightning; every new strike or thunder resets the count.

4:55 p.m.: This counts from the last thunder but ignores the later lightning flash at 4:32 p.m.

5:02 p.m.: Correct. Activity resumes 30 minutes after the last thunder or lightning; the last event was the 4:32 p.m. flash, so play may resume at 5:02 p.m.

5:32 p.m.: Waiting 60 minutes is longer than the 30-minute recommendation and unnecessarily delays play.

Wait 30 minutes after the last thunder or lightning, whichever is later; each new event restarts the 30-minute count.

Answer: A, C, E

Plyometric and landing drills with feedback on knee alignment: Correct. Plyometrics with technique feedback improve landing mechanics and reduce dynamic knee valgus.

Static stretching as the only warm-up activity: Stretching alone does not change landing or cutting mechanics and is not an effective stand-alone prevention program.

Strengthening of the hip and trunk musculature: Correct. Hip and core strength improve control of the knee during landing and cutting.

A single instructional session at the start of preseason: One session is too little; effective programs depend on repeated, ongoing training.

Sessions completed several times per week through preseason and in-season: Correct. Adequate frequency and continuation into the season are needed for the protective effect.

Functional knee braces worn by every player: Prophylactic knee bracing is not recommended for ACL prevention in healthy players.

Effective ACL prevention programs are multicomponent (plyometrics, strength, balance, feedback) and are performed frequently throughout the season.

Answer: B

Outer side of the upper arm: The lateral upper arm over the deltoid is the C5 dermatome test site.

Thumb: Correct. The thumb and lateral (radial) forearm make up the C6 dermatome, the level affected by a C5-C6 disc lesion.

Middle finger: The middle finger is the C7 dermatome test site.

Little finger: The little finger and ulnar hand are the C8 dermatome test site.

Inner side of the forearm just below the elbow: The medial forearm near the elbow is the T1 dermatome test site.

Upper-extremity dermatome test sites: C5 lateral arm, C6 thumb, C7 middle finger, C8 little finger, T1 medial forearm.

Answer: A

Orbital floor (blowout) fracture: Correct. Restricted upward gaze with diplopia (inferior rectus entrapment), infraorbital nerve numbness and a sunken eye (enophthalmos) indicate an orbital floor fracture.

Retinal detachment: Retinal detachment causes flashes, floaters and a curtain over the visual field, not restricted eye movement or cheek numbness.

Corneal abrasion: A corneal abrasion causes pain, tearing, photophobia and a foreign-body sensation without diplopia or a sunken eye.

Hyphema: A hyphema is blood in the anterior chamber; it blurs vision but does not cause infraorbital numbness or restricted gaze.

Blunt orbital trauma plus diplopia on upward gaze, infraorbital numbness and enophthalmos means orbital floor (blowout) fracture.

Answer: A, C, E

A palpable defect in the tendon proximal to the calcaneus: A palpable gap, typically a few centimeters above the insertion, is a classic rupture finding.

Complete inability to actively plantar flex the ankle: Weak active plantar flexion often remains through the tibialis posterior, peroneal (fibularis) muscles and toe flexors, so its presence does not rule out rupture.

Absent plantar flexion when the calf is squeezed (Thompson test): No passive plantar flexion with calf compression indicates loss of tendon continuity.

Increased laxity with the anterior drawer test: Anterior drawer laxity reflects anterior talofibular ligament injury, not the Achilles tendon.

Involved ankle resting in neutral or dorsiflexion with the patient prone and knees flexed to 90 degrees: Loss of the normal resting plantar flexion (Matles test) indicates a ruptured tendon.

Pain with the squeeze test at the mid-leg: Pain with compression of the tibia and fibula suggests syndesmotic injury or fracture.

Achilles rupture: a palpable gap, a positive Thompson test and an abnormal resting angle (Matles test); weak active plantar flexion may still be present.

Answer: C

Absent dorsalis pedis pulse: Loss of the distal pulse is a late finding; pulses are usually present while compartment pressure is already damaging tissue.

Ecchymosis over the anterior leg: Ecchymosis reflects the contusion itself and does not distinguish rising compartment pressure.

Pain with passive plantar flexion of the ankle and toes: Correct. Passive plantar flexion stretches the anterior compartment muscles; pain out of proportion that increases with passive stretch is the earliest sign.

Pain with resisted plantar flexion of the ankle and toes: Resisted plantar flexion contracts and loads the posterior compartment muscles rather than stretching the anterior compartment.

In acute compartment syndrome, pain out of proportion and pain with passive stretch of the compartment muscles come first; paresthesia, paralysis and pulselessness are later findings.

Answer: C

L3: L3 supplies the anterior distal thigh and knee extension; sensation of the foot and great toe extension would be spared.

L4: L4 involvement would alter medial leg sensation and usually diminish the patellar tendon reflex, which is 2+ here.

L5: Correct. Dorsum-of-foot and first web space sensory loss with weak great toe extension (extensor hallucis longus) and normal patellar and Achilles reflexes fits the L5 nerve root.

S1: S1 involvement affects the lateral foot, weakens ankle plantar flexion and usually diminishes the Achilles reflex, which is 2+ here.

L5 has no reliable deep tendon reflex; recognize it by first web space and dorsum-of-foot sensation and great toe extension strength.

Answer: A, C, E

A soccer player who collapsed suddenly and is unresponsive with occasional gasping breaths: Use: occasional gasping (agonal breathing) is not normal breathing; a sudden collapse with no normal breathing is treated as cardiac arrest.

A runner who is alert and reports chest pressure and nausea: Do not apply: a responsive patient is not in cardiac arrest; activate EMS, monitor and keep the AED nearby.

A lacrosse player who is unresponsive and not breathing after a ball strikes the chest: Use: a blow to the chest can trigger cardiac arrest (commotio cordis); early defibrillation is the key to survival.

A wrestler who is unresponsive after a seizure but is breathing normally: Do not apply: a patient who is breathing normally after a seizure is monitored in a side-lying position.

A swimmer pulled from the pool who is unresponsive and not breathing: Use: once the patient is out of the water and the chest is dried, the AED is applied for any patient in cardiac arrest.

A tennis player who fainted briefly in the heat and is now alert and talking: Do not apply: a brief faint with full recovery is not cardiac arrest; the patient is evaluated for the cause.

Apply the AED as soon as it is available to any patient who is unresponsive and not breathing normally (including agonal gasping), whatever the cause.

Answer: B

Lachman and posterior drawer ligamentous testing: Out of sequence and unsafe: ligamentous testing of a dislocated knee is deferred; the vascular threat comes first.

Palpation of the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses: Correct. Knee dislocation risks popliteal artery and peroneal (fibular) nerve injury, so distal pulses and neurovascular status are assessed first; a limb-threatening vascular injury needs immediate EMS transport.

Manual muscle testing of the quadriceps and hamstrings: Not a priority: resisted testing is contraindicated with a suspected dislocation and does not detect vascular compromise.

Girth measurements above and below the knee: Not a priority: girth quantifies swelling but does not reveal the arterial injury that threatens the limb.

With any suspected dislocation, especially the knee, check distal circulation, sensation and motor function before anything else (NATA 2018 dislocations statement).

Answer: D

A player who is conscious but confused about the strike: Lower priority: confusion is common after a strike, but a conscious, breathing patient is not in immediate danger of death.

A parent who is conscious with a burn on the forearm: Lower priority: superficial burns are common after lightning strikes and are treated after life threats.

A referee who is conscious with dizziness and ear ringing: Lower priority: dizziness and tinnitus are common, non-life-threatening effects of a nearby strike.

A player who is unresponsive and not breathing: Correct. Lightning triage is reversed: patients who appear dead are treated first, because lightning often causes cardiopulmonary arrest that responds to prompt CPR and AED use (NATA 2013 lightning statement).

With lightning casualties, patients in cardiopulmonary arrest are treated first ("reverse triage"), once responders are in a safer location.

Answer: C

Anterior glide of the talus on the mortise: An anterior talar glide improves plantarflexion, not dorsiflexion.

Lateral glide of the calcaneus on the talus: This subtalar glide targets eversion, not talocrural dorsiflexion.

Posterior glide of the talus on the mortise: Correct. During dorsiflexion the convex talus rolls anteriorly and glides posteriorly; a firm capsular end feel indicates capsular hypomobility that a posterior talar glide addresses.

Plantar glide of the cuboid: A midfoot glide does not affect talocrural dorsiflexion.

Talocrural dorsiflexion is restored with a posterior talar glide (convex talus moving on the concave mortise).

Answer: D

Seated hip adduction with a ball squeeze: Adductor strengthening works the muscles that pull the femur toward valgus; it does not strengthen the weak hip abductors.

Standing hip flexion with an elastic band: Hip flexor work is in the sagittal plane and does not target the abductors that control frontal-plane knee position.

Seated leg extension from 90-0 degrees: Loaded open-chain extension through full range increases patellofemoral stress and ignores the hip deficit.

Side-lying hip abduction: Correct. Hip abductor weakness allows femoral adduction and internal rotation (dynamic valgus); strengthening the gluteus medius addresses the cause, consistent with the NATA 2018 PFP recommendation for hip and knee exercise.

For patellofemoral pain, match the exercise to the impairment: dynamic valgus with weak abductors calls for hip abductor strengthening alongside knee exercise.

Answer: 110 pps, short pulse duration, comfortable tingling with no visible contraction: Sensory-level pain control (gate); 2 pps, long pulse duration, strong rhythmic muscle twitches for 30 minutes: Low-rate pain control (endogenous opioid); 50 pps, 10 seconds on/50 seconds off, maximal tolerated contraction during a quad set: NMES for strengthening or re-education; 35 pps, ramped contraction timed with active terminal knee extension: NMES for strengthening or re-education; 80 pps, intensity raised to tingling as the patient accommodates: Sensory-level pain control (gate); 1 pps point stimulator over a trigger point, intensity to a sharp tolerable sensation: Low-rate pain control (endogenous opioid)

High-rate sub-motor stimulation = gate control; low-rate intense stimulation = endogenous opioids; tetanic contractions with an on/off cycle = NMES.

Answer: D

1 MHz, pulsed 20%: Wrong depth and nonthermal: both parameters work against a heating goal for a superficial tendon.

1 MHz, continuous: One MHz penetrates deeper (about 2-5 cm) and heats the superficial tendon less effectively.

3 MHz, pulsed 20%: Right depth, but a 20% duty cycle is a nonthermal setting and will not raise tissue temperature meaningfully.

3 MHz, continuous: Correct. The patellar tendon lies superficially (about 1-2 cm deep); 3 MHz is absorbed in superficial tissue, and the continuous mode produces the thermal effect.

Frequency sets depth (3 MHz superficial, 1 MHz deep); mode sets effect (continuous for thermal, pulsed for nonthermal).

Answer: Injury evaluation notes kept by an athletic trainer employed by a public secondary school and filed in the student's school record: FERPA; Rehabilitation notes at a hospital-owned outpatient clinic that bills health plans electronically: HIPAA; Treatment records kept by an athletic trainer employed by a public university and maintained as part of each student-athlete's university education records: FERPA; Records of a physician practice that bills electronically for treating a 16-year-old patient's wrist fracture: HIPAA; Treatment logs of a hospital-employed athletic trainer providing outreach services at a high school, stored in the hospital's electronic record: HIPAA; Fitness-testing results from a physical education class at a public middle school: FERPA

Ask who keeps the record: a school that receives federal funds (FERPA education record) or a covered health care entity (HIPAA protected health information).