CGRN Practice Questions (2026) — Free Sample Questions with Answers

Answer: C

Assist with the snare briefly while glancing back at the monitor between steps: Taking on a hands-on technical task divides attention. Intermittent glances do not meet the standard of continuous monitoring during sedation.

Assist only as long as the patient's oxygen saturation stays above 92%: Desaturation is a late sign of hypoventilation, so a normal SpO2 does not make an unmonitored patient safe.

Request a second assistant so that sedation monitoring stays uninterrupted: Correct. SGNA states that the nurse administering moderate sedation should have no other duties that would leave the patient unattended or compromise continuous monitoring. Only brief, interruptible tasks are acceptable.

Hold further sedation doses so attention can shift to the snare safely: Stopping sedation does not end the monitoring obligation. The sedation already given still causes risk, and the procedure may become poorly tolerated.

The RN giving moderate sedation is dedicated to monitoring the patient. Anything beyond minor, interruptible tasks needs another staff member.

Answer: A

Place it directly into the urease test well and read it per the kit's timing: Correct. The rapid urease test detects bacterial urease in fresh tissue. The biopsy goes straight into the test medium and is read at the times in the kit instructions.

Place it in 10% neutral buffered formalin with the histology specimens: Formalin fixes tissue and destroys urease activity, so the rapid test would be falsely negative. Formalin is for histology.

Put it in sterile saline and refrigerate it until the lab courier arrives: The test is designed to be done on fresh tissue at the point of care. Saline storage delays testing and can reduce accuracy.

Send it dry in a sterile container to microbiology for routine culture: H. pylori culture needs special transport media and handling. A dry container is not appropriate, and culture is not a rapid urease test.

Rapid urease biopsies go directly into the test kit. Histology biopsies go into formalin. Recent PPI, bismuth or antibiotic use can cause false-negative urease results.

Answer: D

Ascending cholangitis from incomplete biliary drainage: Cholangitis typically causes fever, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain (Charcot's triad). It does not cause a marked rise in lipase.

Delayed bleeding from the sphincterotomy site: Post-sphincterotomy bleeding causes melena, hematemesis or a falling hemoglobin. Epigastric pain radiating to the back with a high lipase is not typical.

Retroperitoneal perforation of the duodenal wall: Perforation can cause pain, but signs such as crepitus or subcutaneous emphysema would usually be present. Elevated lipase points to the pancreas.

Post-ERCP pancreatitis from papillary trauma: Correct. New epigastric pain radiating to the back plus lipase at least three times normal within hours of ERCP meets the definition of post-ERCP pancreatitis, the most common serious ERCP complication.

Post-ERCP pancreatitis means new pancreatic-type pain plus amylase or lipase at least 3 times the upper limit of normal after the procedure. Expect aggressive IV fluids, analgesia and close monitoring.

Answer: D

The number of adenomas removed divided by all polyps removed in a year: This is an adenoma-to-polyp ratio. ADR counts procedures with an adenoma, not individual polyps.

The percentage of all colonoscopies in which any polyp is found: This is the polyp detection rate. It includes hyperplastic and other non-adenomatous polyps.

The percentage of colonoscopies reaching the cecum with photo proof: This is the cecal intubation rate, a separate colonoscopy quality indicator.

The percentage of average-risk screening colonoscopies with an adenoma: Correct. ADR is the proportion of screening colonoscopies in average-risk patients in which at least one adenoma is detected. It is inversely associated with interval colorectal cancer.

ADR is the share of average-risk screening colonoscopies with at least one adenoma found. A higher ADR is linked to fewer interval cancers.

Answer: A

Stimulate the patient and perform a jaw thrust to open the airway: Correct. A flat capnogram with minimal chest movement means apnea or airway obstruction. Oxygen saturation falls later, so the nurse should restore the airway at once with stimulation and a jaw thrust or chin lift.

Wait until the SpO2 falls below 90% before starting an intervention: Oxygenation is a late indicator, especially with supplemental oxygen. Waiting for desaturation wastes the early warning capnography provides.

Replace the nasal cannula because the sampling line is likely displaced: Equipment should be checked, but minimal chest movement confirms a real ventilation problem. Treat the patient first.

Give additional sedation because the patient may be holding the breath: More sedative would deepen respiratory depression in a patient who is already apneic.

Capnography detects hypoventilation and apnea before pulse oximetry does. A lost waveform calls for immediate airway maneuvers, then supportive ventilation and reversal agents as needed.

Answer: D

A full automated endoscope reprocessor cycle: The AER cycle comes after manual cleaning. It cannot replace manual cleaning or come before it.

Alcohol flush and forced-air drying of channels: Alcohol flushing and drying are final steps after disinfection and rinsing, before storage.

Minimum effective concentration test of disinfectant: MEC testing checks the disinfectant before the high-level disinfection step. It is not the step that comes before immersion for cleaning.

Leak testing per the manufacturer's instructions: Correct. Leak testing comes before immersion so a damaged scope is found before fluid invasion damages it further and before it becomes a hidden reservoir for microorganisms.

Reprocessing sequence: bedside precleaning, leak test, manual cleaning, (visual inspection), high-level disinfection or sterilization, rinsing, alcohol flush and drying, storage.