CMA (AAMA) Practice Questions (2026) — Free Sample Questions with Answers

Answer: A

1. Percent of personal best = today's reading ÷ personal best × 100.
2. 300 ÷ 450 = 0.667.
3. 0.667 × 100 ≈ 67%.
4. Zones: green 80–100%, yellow 50–79%, red below 50%. 67% is in the yellow zone.

Yellow zone, at about 67% of personal best: Correct. 300 ÷ 450 × 100 ≈ 67%, which falls in the yellow (caution) zone of 50% to 79%.

Green zone, at about 150% of personal best: This divides the personal best by today's reading instead of the reverse.

Red zone, at about 33% of personal best: This uses the drop (150 L/min) rather than the reading itself; 150 ÷ 450 = 33%.

Green zone, at about 80% of personal best: The green zone is 80% to 100% of personal best; 300 is only about 67% of 450.

Red zone, at about 67% of personal best: The percentage is right, but the red zone is below 50% of personal best.

Peak flow is judged against the patient's own personal best: green 80–100%, yellow 50–79%, red below 50%.

Answer: C

Gold, light blue, lavender, gray: Drawing the clot-activator tube before citrate can carry activator into the coagulation tube and distort the PT/INR.

Lavender, light blue, gold, gray: EDTA drawn first can carry over into the later tubes and chelate calcium, which upsets coagulation and chemistry results.

Light blue, gold, lavender, gray: Correct. CLSI GP41 order: sodium citrate, then serum tubes (with or without gel), then heparin, then EDTA, then fluoride/oxalate.

Light blue, lavender, gold, gray: Putting EDTA ahead of the serum tube risks EDTA carryover, which can falsely raise potassium and lower calcium in the serum specimen.

Gray, lavender, gold, light blue: This is the reverse of the standard sequence; the additives most likely to contaminate later tubes would be drawn first.

CLSI order of draw: blood cultures/sterile, light blue (citrate), red/gold (serum), green (heparin), lavender (EDTA), gray (fluoride/oxalate). It minimizes additive carryover between tubes.

Answer: D

The patient has 40% loss of vision in that eye: A Snellen fraction is not a percentage of vision loss.

The patient missed 20 of 40 letters on the chart: The numbers refer to distances, not to letters missed.

The patient stood 40 feet from the chart: The standard testing distance is 20 feet; the first number is the test distance.

The patient reads at 20 feet what most read at 40 feet: Correct. The top number is the test distance (20 ft); the bottom is the distance at which a person with normal vision can read that line.

The patient reads at 40 feet what most read at 20 feet: This reverses the meaning; that would describe better than normal vision.

In a Snellen fraction, the numerator is the testing distance (20 ft) and the denominator is the line the patient reads; a larger denominator means poorer distance acuity.

Answer: A

Wash the site with soap and water: Correct. Immediate first aid is washing the wound with soap and water, then reporting the exposure right away.

Finish the patient's visit, then report it: Reporting must be immediate because post-exposure prophylaxis, if needed, works best when started within hours.

Apply bleach to the puncture site: Caustic agents such as bleach injure tissue and are not recommended by CDC.

Squeeze the finger to force out blood: CDC finds no evidence that squeezing the wound reduces transmission risk, and it may damage tissue.

Ask the patient to sign a consent for HIV testing: Source testing is arranged later by the employer per state law; it is not the first action.

Post-exposure steps: wash with soap and water (flush mucous membranes with water), report to the supervisor immediately, and obtain a confidential medical evaluation and follow-up.

Answer: B

Gloves, gown, mask, goggles: Gloves go on last so their cuffs cover the gown sleeves and stay clean.

Gown, mask, goggles, gloves: Correct. CDC donning sequence: gown, mask or respirator, goggles or face shield, then gloves pulled over the gown cuffs.

Goggles, gloves, mask, gown: Eye protection goes on after the mask, and gloves are always last.

Mask, gloves, goggles, gown: Putting gloves on before the gown leaves the cuffs uncovered and contaminates the gloves while tying the gown.

Gown, gloves, goggles, mask: Adjusting the mask and goggles after gloving would contaminate the gloves; gloves go on last.

Donning: gown, mask/respirator, goggles/face shield, gloves. Doffing (one CDC method): gloves, goggles/face shield, gown, mask, then hand hygiene.

Answer: E

Insulin 10 U: "U" can be misread as 0 or 4; write "units".

Digoxin .125 mg: A missing leading zero can be misread as 125 mg; write 0.125 mg.

MSO4 2 mg: MSO4 can mean morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate; write the drug name in full.

Warfarin 5.0 mg: A trailing zero can be misread as 50 mg; write 5 mg.

Lorazepam 0.5 mg: Correct. A leading zero before a decimal is required and prevents a tenfold error.

Do Not Use: U, IU, Q.D., Q.O.D., trailing zeros, missing leading zeros, MS, MSO4 and MgSO4. Always use a leading zero (0.5 mg) and never a trailing zero (5 mg).

Answer: D

1. Convert the weight: 33 lb ÷ 2.2 = 15 kg.
2. Daily dose: 15 kg × 40 mg/kg = 600 mg/day.
3. Every 12 hours = 2 doses: 600 ÷ 2 = 300 mg per dose.
4. Volume: 300 mg ÷ 250 mg × 5 mL = 6 mL per dose.

26.4 mL: This uses pounds instead of kilograms and does not divide the daily dose.

12 mL: This is the total daily volume; the daily dose is divided into two doses.

13.2 mL: This uses the weight in pounds instead of kilograms.

6 mL: Correct. 33 lb ÷ 2.2 = 15 kg; 15 × 40 = 600 mg/day; ÷ 2 doses = 300 mg; 300 ÷ 250 × 5 = 6 mL.

3 mL: Every 12 hours means 2 doses a day, not 4.

Weight-based dosing: convert lb to kg (÷ 2.2), find the daily dose, divide by the number of doses, then convert mg to mL.

Answer: B

1. Convert the height to inches: 5 ft × 12 + 6 = 66 in.
2. Square the height: 66 × 66 = 4,356.
3. Multiply the weight by 703: 180 × 703 = 126,540.
4. Divide: 126,540 ÷ 4,356 ≈ 29.0.
5. A BMI of 25.0–29.9 is overweight.

24.4; normal weight: This uses a height of 72 in (6 ft) instead of 66 in.

29; overweight: Correct. 703 × 180 ÷ 66² = 126,540 ÷ 4,356 ≈ 29.0, which falls in the overweight range of 25.0–29.9.

29; obese: The number is right but the category is wrong; obesity begins at a BMI of 30.

30.9; obese: This uses a height of 64 in (5 ft 4 in) instead of 66 in.

48.8; obese: This divides the weight in kilograms by the height in meters without squaring the height.

BMI = 703 × lb ÷ in² (or kg ÷ m²). CDC adult categories: <18.5 underweight, 18.5–24.9 healthy, 25–29.9 overweight, ≥30 obese.

Answer: A

Stage 1 hypertension: Correct. A systolic of 130–139 or a diastolic of 80–89 is stage 1 hypertension; the higher category of either number decides.

Elevated: Elevated is a systolic of 120–129 with a diastolic below 80; 134 exceeds 129.

Normal: Normal requires a systolic below 120 and a diastolic below 80; 134 is above that.

Stage 2 hypertension: Stage 2 begins at a systolic of 140 or a diastolic of 90 or higher.

Hypertensive crisis: A crisis is a systolic above 180 and/or a diastolic above 120.

AHA/ACC adult categories: normal <120/<80, elevated 120–129/<80, stage 1 130–139 or 80–89, stage 2 ≥140 or ≥90. Classify by the higher category of the two numbers.

Answer: D

Advise rest and aspirin and to call back if the pain worsens: MAs do not give medical advice outside protocol, and this delays emergency care.

Schedule the father for the next available appointment today: An office visit delays emergency care for a possible myocardial infarction.

Take a message for the provider to return the call at day's end: A delayed callback is unsafe for an emergency.

Tell the caller to call 911 now, per the office triage protocol: Correct. These are signs of a possible heart attack; emergency protocols direct the caller to activate EMS immediately.

Place the caller on hold to check the provider's schedule: Placing an emergency caller on hold wastes critical time.

Telephone screening follows the office protocol; possible emergencies (chest pain, trouble breathing, stroke signs) are directed to 911 at once and documented.

Answer: B

"Don't worry. I'm sure everything will turn out fine.": False reassurance dismisses the concern and promises something the MA cannot know.

"It sounds like waiting for these results is worrying you.": Correct. Reflecting the patient's feeling back invites her to talk more and shows she was heard.

"Why are you so worried about a simple biopsy result?": "Why" questions sound judgmental and tend to make patients defensive.

"My aunt had a biopsy last year, and hers turned out benign.": Shifting to a personal story moves the focus away from the patient.

"You should save those questions for the doctor later.": This closes the conversation and dismisses the patient's feelings.

Reflecting names the feeling the patient expressed; avoid false reassurance, "why" questions, personal stories, and dismissing the patient.

Answer: B

Duty: A duty existed because the patient was in the care of the practice when the vaccine was given.

Damages: Correct. Without an injury or loss to the patient there are no damages, so a negligence claim would fail even though an error occurred.

Delegation: Delegation is not one of the four elements of negligence (duty, dereliction, direct cause, damages).

Dereliction: Giving the wrong vaccine is a breach of the standard of care, so dereliction is present.

Disclosure: Disclosure of the error is an ethical duty, but it is not an element of a negligence claim.

Negligence requires all four Ds: duty, dereliction (breach), direct cause, and damages. If any one is missing, the claim fails. The error should still be reported and documented per office policy.

Answer: B

wave: Pure wave schedules all of the hour's patients at the start of the hour.

modified wave: Modified wave books two or more patients at the top of the hour and single patients later in the hour, which absorbs late arrivals while limiting waits.

clustering: Clustering groups visits by type (for example, all physicals on one morning).

stream: Stream scheduling gives every patient a separate, evenly spaced time with no grouping.

open hours: Open hours involve no scheduled times at all.

Modified wave = a small "wave" at the top of the hour, then individual times for the rest of the hour.

Answer: A

The mother's plan: Under the birthday rule, the plan of the parent whose birthday (month and day) falls earlier in the calendar year is primary. March 14 comes before July 2.

The father's plan, because he is older: The birthday rule ignores the year of birth and the parents' ages; only month and day count.

The plan with the lower deductible: Primary status follows coordination-of-benefits rules, not plan cost sharing.

The father's plan, because it is older: How long a plan has been in effect does not decide primacy for a dependent child under the birthday rule.

Both plans pay half as co-primary: Coordination of benefits names one primary plan; the secondary plan then considers the remaining balance.

Birthday rule: for a child covered by both parents, the parent whose birthday comes first in the calendar year has the primary plan; year of birth is irrelevant.

Answer: D

1. Apply the deductible first: patient pays $150; $500 − $150 = $350 remains.
2. Coinsurance on the remainder: 0.20 × $350 = $70.
3. Patient total = $150 + $70 = $220.
4. Check: plan pays 0.80 × $350 = $280; $220 + $280 = $500.

$280: This is the plan's payment (80% of $350), not the patient's share.

$100: This is 20% of the whole $500 and ignores the deductible that must be met first.

$250: This adds the deductible to 20% of $500; coinsurance applies only to the amount left after the deductible.

$220: The patient first pays the $150 remaining deductible, then 20% of the remaining $350 ($70): $150 + $70 = $220.

$150: This counts only the deductible and omits the coinsurance on the remaining balance.

Apply the remaining deductible first, then split what is left by the coinsurance percentages.