CPCT/A Practice Questions (2026) — Free Sample Questions with Answers

6 free CPCT/A questions from our 25-question bank, grouped by content domain. Each answer explains why the right option is right — and why every wrong option is wrong.

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Patient Care

Question 1

A patient with a terminal diagnosis tells the PCT, "If I can just live long enough to see my granddaughter graduate, I promise I'll do anything the doctors ask." Which stage of grief does this statement reflect?

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Answer: D

Denial: Denial is refusing to accept the diagnosis (for example, "The test must be wrong").

Anger: Anger shows as resentment or blame directed at caregivers, family or a higher power.

Acceptance: Acceptance is a calm, realistic acknowledgment of what is happening, without trying to negotiate.

Bargaining: Correct. Trying to strike a deal for more time ("If I can just...") is the bargaining stage.

Kübler-Ross stages: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance — patients may move through them in any order; respond with active listening.

Question 2

While bathing a bedbound patient, the PCT finds a reddened area over the sacrum. The skin is intact, and the redness does not blanch (turn white) when pressed lightly. How is this finding classified?

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Answer: C

Stage 2 pressure injury, because the area is red and painful: Stage 2 involves partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis, such as a shallow open area or an intact or ruptured serum-filled blister.

Unstageable pressure injury, because the depth cannot be seen: Unstageable means the wound base is covered by slough or eschar; here the skin is intact.

Stage 1 pressure injury, which the PCT should report to the nurse: Correct. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness is a Stage 1 pressure injury; it is reported and pressure is relieved by repositioning.

Stage 3 pressure injury, because it lies over a bony prominence: Stage 3 is full-thickness skin loss with visible fat; location over a bony prominence does not determine the stage.

Stage 1 = intact skin with non-blanchable redness; Stage 2 = partial-thickness loss/blister; Stage 3 = full-thickness skin loss; Stage 4 = exposed bone, tendon or muscle.

Compliance, Safety, and Professional Responsibility

Question 3

A PCT enters a patient's room and finds smoke and flames coming from a wastebasket next to the bed. Following the RACE acronym, what should the PCT do first?

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Answer: B

Pull the nearest fire alarm before doing anything else: Activating the alarm is the second step (A) of RACE, after removing anyone in immediate danger.

Remove the patient from immediate danger: Correct. R = Rescue: anyone in immediate danger is moved away from the fire first.

Close the door to contain the smoke and fire: Containing the fire (C) comes after rescue and alarm.

Use the fire extinguisher on the wastebasket: Extinguishing (E) is the last step and only if the fire is small and it is safe.

RACE: Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish/Evacuate. For extinguishers use PASS: Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep.

Infection Control

Question 4

A patient with diarrhea has tested positive for Clostridioides difficile. Which combination of precautions and hand hygiene should the PCT use when providing care?

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Answer: C

Surgical mask on entry and alcohol-based hand rub when leaving the room: C. difficile is not airborne, and alcohol does not kill its spores.

N95 respirator and a negative-pressure room until the diarrhea resolves: Airborne precautions are for diseases such as tuberculosis, measles and varicella, not C. difficile.

Gown and gloves, followed by washing hands with soap and water: Correct. C. difficile requires contact precautions, and because alcohol does not kill the spores, hands are washed with soap and running water.

Standard precautions only, with alcohol rub before and after care: Standard precautions alone are not enough for C. difficile, and alcohol rub is ineffective against spores.

C. difficile: contact precautions (gown and gloves), soap-and-water handwashing, and a sporicidal (bleach-based) disinfectant for equipment.

Phlebotomy

Question 5

A PCT will collect a lavender-top (EDTA), a light-blue-top (sodium citrate) and a gold-top (serum separator) tube by evacuated-tube venipuncture. According to CLSI, in what order should the tubes be filled?

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Answer: C

Lavender, light blue, gold: Drawing EDTA first can carry EDTA into the other tubes, chelating calcium and falsely affecting coagulation and chemistry results.

Gold, lavender, light blue: The citrate tube must come before serum tubes, whose clot activator can activate coagulation in a later citrate tube.

Light blue, gold, lavender: Correct. CLSI order: blood cultures, light blue (citrate), serum tubes (red/gold), green (heparin), lavender (EDTA), gray (fluoride/oxalate).

Light blue, lavender, gold: EDTA must follow the serum tube; EDTA carryover into a serum tube can falsely raise potassium and lower calcium.

Order of draw: blood cultures → light blue → red/gold → green → lavender → gray, to prevent additive carryover.

EKG

Question 6

An EKG is recorded at the standard paper speed of 25 mm/sec. The rhythm is regular, and there are 15 small boxes between consecutive R waves. What is the heart rate?

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Answer: D

75 beats per minute: 75 bpm would correspond to 20 small boxes (1500 ÷ 20) or 4 large boxes between R waves.

150 beats per minute: 150 bpm would require only 10 small boxes (2 large boxes) between R waves.

60 beats per minute: 60 bpm corresponds to 25 small boxes (5 large boxes) between R waves.

100 beats per minute: Correct. At 25 mm/sec there are 1500 small boxes per minute, so 1500 ÷ 15 = 100 bpm (equivalently 300 ÷ 3 large boxes).

At 25 mm/sec: HR = 1500 ÷ small boxes or 300 ÷ large boxes between R waves (regular rhythms only). At 50 mm/sec, the divisors double.

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