CPHQ Practice Questions (2026) — Free Sample Questions with Answers

14 free CPHQ questions from our 150-question bank, grouped by content domain. Each answer explains why the right option is right — and why every wrong option is wrong.

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Quality Leadership and Integration

Question 1

The board of a home health and hospice organization receives a quarterly quality report listing this quarter's percentage for 45 measures. Board members say they cannot tell whether performance is improving. Which change would BEST help the board fulfill its oversight role?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

Add the department-level raw data behind each measure as an appendix: More detail adds volume, not clarity; the board still cannot see direction.

Show a few strategic measures trended against targets and benchmarks: Correct. Trends over time against targets and benchmarks answer the board's question, and a short strategic set keeps attention on oversight rather than operations.

Color-code each of the 45 measures red, yellow, or green against target: Status colors show this quarter only and keep all 45 measures; they still do not show trends.

Replace the measures with narrative summaries from each department: Narrative alone loses the data the board needs to judge performance.

Board quality reports should show a few strategic measures over time against targets and comparisons, so trustees can see direction and act.

Question 2

A hospital quality council scores four proposed projects from 1 (low) to 5 (high) on three weighted criteria, shown below. Which project has the highest weighted priority score?

Project prioritization matrix
Criterion (weight)Falls reductionDischarge timingMedication reconciliationED throughput
Patient safety impact (×3)5243
Strategic alignment (×2)2543
Feasibility (×1)2534
Weighted score = sum of (weight × score) across criteria.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

  1. Weighted score = (3 × safety) + (2 × alignment) + (1 × feasibility).
  2. Falls reduction: 15 + 4 + 2 = 21 points.
  3. Discharge timing: 6 + 10 + 5 = 21 points.
  4. Medication reconciliation: 12 + 8 + 3 = 23 points.
  5. ED throughput: 9 + 6 + 4 = 19 points.
  6. Medication reconciliation ranks first (23 points); recommend it as the top priority, with falls reduction and discharge timing tied for second.

12 points — discharge timing: Adds the raw scores without the weights (2 + 5 + 5 = 12), so the heavily weighted safety criterion counts no more than feasibility.

21 points — falls reduction: Picks the project with the top score on the heaviest criterion; its weighted total of 21 is below 23.

23 points — medication reconciliation: Correct. 3(4) + 2(4) + 1(3) = 12 + 8 + 3 = 23, the highest weighted total; falls reduction and discharge timing both score 21 and ED throughput 19.

27 points — discharge timing: Reverses the weights (feasibility ×3, safety ×1): 2 + 10 + 15 = 27.

In a weighted prioritization matrix, multiply each criterion score by its weight and add the products; unweighted totals ignore what leaders said matters most.

Performance and Process Improvement

Question 3

A hospital team recorded the main reason for 200 delayed discharges and displayed the results below. Which conclusion is BEST supported?

Reasons for delayed discharge (n = 200)01020304050Awaiting transportPharmacy pendingTest resultsPaperworkFamily unavailableReasonPercent of delays

Cumulative percent: 42%, 70%, 84%, 93%, 100%.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

Transport and pharmacy account for 70% of delays and should be the focus: Correct. The Pareto principle directs effort to the vital few categories; the first two bars account for 70% of delays.

Transport delays alone account for most of the delayed discharges: Transport is the largest category at 42%, which is less than half.

Family availability should come first because it is likely the easiest fix: Choosing by ease ignores what the Pareto chart shows; this category is only 7%.

The discharge process is out of control because one reason exceeds 40%: A Pareto chart has no control limits; it cannot show whether a process is stable.

A Pareto chart sorts categories in descending order with a cumulative line so the team can focus on the vital few.

Question 4

A hospital FMEA team rated four failure modes in the IV infusion process on 1–10 scales. Which failure mode should the team address FIRST based on the risk priority number?

FMEA ratings
Failure modeSeverity (S)Occurrence (O)Detection (D)
1. Pump rate programmed incorrectly918
2. Infusion started late after the order583
3. IV line not labeled at the connection655
4. Wrong bag hung for the patient1024
Detection: 10 = least likely to be detected before harm.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

  1. RPN = severity × occurrence × detection.
  2. Failure mode 1: 9 × 1 × 8 = 72.
  3. Failure mode 2: 5 × 8 × 3 = 120.
  4. Failure mode 3: 6 × 5 × 5 = 150.
  5. Failure mode 4: 10 × 2 × 4 = 80.
  6. Failure mode 3 has the highest RPN (150), so it is addressed first; many teams also act on any failure mode with a very high severity regardless of RPN.

Failure mode 1: Has the highest sum (9 + 1 + 8 = 18), but the RPN multiplies the ratings: 9 × 1 × 8 = 72.

Failure mode 2: Has the highest S × O (40) when detection is left out; the full RPN is 5 × 8 × 3 = 120.

Failure mode 3: Correct. RPN = S × O × D = 6 × 5 × 5 = 150, the highest of the four (72, 120, 150, 80).

Failure mode 4: Has the highest severity (10), but its RPN is 10 × 2 × 4 = 80.

RPN = S × O × D; rank failure modes by RPN, not by a single rating or a sum.

Question 5

Nurses on a surgical unit understand why a new hand-off tool was adopted and say they want to use it. When asked, however, many cannot describe the steps the tool requires. Using the ADKAR concept, which element should the change plan address NEXT?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

Awareness: Nurses already understand why the change is needed.

Desire: Nurses say they want to use the tool, so desire is present.

Knowledge: Correct. Awareness and desire are present, but staff cannot describe the steps; knowledge of how to change is the next gap.

Ability: Ability (performing the skill in practice) comes after knowledge of what to do.

ADKAR moves in order: Awareness, Desire, Knowledge, Ability, Reinforcement; address the first missing element.

Population Health and Care Transitions

Question 6

An outpatient clinic network stratified one measure by patients' preferred language. Which action BEST addresses equity in this result?

Specialty referral appointments kept within 30 days
Preferred languageReferralsKept within 30 daysRate
English50041282%
Spanish1106660%
Vietnamese403178%
All patients65050978%
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

Raise the overall target from 78% to 85% for every patient group: A higher overall target does not focus effort on the group with the gap.

Exclude the Spanish-speaking group from the measure as an outlier: Removing the group hides the disparity instead of fixing it.

Find barriers with Spanish-speaking patients and test targeted changes: Correct. The Spanish-speaking group is 22 points below English speakers with an adequate sample; co-designing targeted changes and tracking the stratified rate addresses the gap directly.

Add reminder calls for all patients and keep tracking the overall rate: A universal change can raise the overall rate while the gap persists, and the overall rate would not show it.

Act on disparities with targeted, co-designed changes for the affected group and keep monitoring the stratified measure.

Question 7

A health plan's quality director wants to identify members with diabetes whose blood glucose is poorly controlled, across every clinic in the plan's network. Which data source provides the MOST complete population-level view?

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Answer: A

Administrative claims linked with laboratory results data: Correct. Claims identify every member with diabetes across all clinics, and linked lab results show which members are poorly controlled.

Chart abstraction from one large clinic in the network: One clinic's charts miss members seen elsewhere.

Member satisfaction survey results from last year: Surveys measure experience, not clinical control, and reach only respondents.

Hospital discharge summaries for admitted members: Covers only members who were hospitalized.

Population health views need data that reach the whole defined population, such as claims combined with clinical data.

Health Data Analytics

Question 8

An urgent care center with steady weekly volume introduced a new triage process after week 10. The run chart shows weekly counts of patients who left without being seen, with the median of weeks 1–10 extended across the chart. Which conclusion is BEST supported?

Patients who left without being seen, per week81012141618123456789101112131415161718WeekPatients
Weekly count Baseline median (14.5)
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

No signal is present, because no points fall outside the upper or lower limits: A run chart has no control limits; run-chart rules (shift, trend, runs) are used instead.

A trend is present, showing that counts are still falling: A trend needs 5 or more consecutive points all going down (or up); after week 10 the counts go up and down.

More baseline data are needed before any run-chart rule can be applied: Ten baseline points are enough to set a median and apply the rules.

A shift is present, indicating a non-random change after the new process: Correct. Weeks 10 through 18 are 9 consecutive points below the baseline median, more than the 6 needed for a shift, so the drop is unlikely to be random and coincides with the new triage process.

Run chart rules: shift = 6 or more consecutive points on one side of the median; trend = 5 or more consecutive increases or decreases; also check the number of runs and astronomical points.

Question 9

The individuals chart shows an ambulatory clinic's monthly average days to the third next available appointment. The clinic's target is 10 days. December was the highest value of the year, and the clinic director wants to add Saturday sessions in response. What is the BEST interpretation?

Days to third next available appointment (I chart)0246810121416182022JanFebMarAprMayJunJulAugSepOctNovDecMonthDays
Monthly value Center line (12) UCL (19.3) LCL (4.7)
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

Investigate December as a special cause before making any change: December is inside the limits and triggers no run rule; investigating it as special cause chases common-cause variation.

Add the sessions now, because December shows access is getting worse: Reacting to one month within the limits is tampering; nothing shows a real deterioration.

No action is needed, because every point is within the control limits: Stable does not mean acceptable: the process averages 12 days, above the 10-day target.

December is common-cause variation; redesign the process to lower its average: Correct. All points are within the limits with no run-rule signal, so the process is stable at about 12 days. Because that average misses the 10-day target, a fundamental change to the scheduling system is needed, not a reaction to one month.

A stable process that misses its target needs system redesign; reacting to individual common-cause points is tampering.

Question 10

A health system compares mortality across four surgical units. Which unit's performance is BEST relative to the risk of the patients it treated?

Surgical mortality by unit, last fiscal year
UnitCasesObserved deathsExpected deaths
W40086
X15054
Y3001824
Z250910
Expected deaths come from the same validated risk-adjustment model for all units.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

  1. O/E for each unit = observed deaths ÷ expected deaths.
  2. W: 8 ÷ 6 = 1.33; X: 5 ÷ 4 = 1.25; Y: 18 ÷ 24 = 0.75; Z: 9 ÷ 10 = 0.90.
  3. Crude rates for comparison: W 2.0%, X 3.3%, Y 6.0%, Z 3.6%; these ignore case mix.
  4. Interpretation: O/E < 1 means fewer deaths than expected. Unit Y (0.75) performs best relative to risk; W and X perform worse than expected despite low counts or crude rates.

Unit W: Has the lowest crude mortality (8 ÷ 400 = 2.0%), but its O/E is 8 ÷ 6 = 1.33: more deaths than its low-risk case mix predicts.

Unit X: Has the fewest deaths (5), but raw counts ignore volume and risk; O/E = 5 ÷ 4 = 1.25, worse than expected.

Unit Y: Correct. O/E = 18 ÷ 24 = 0.75, the lowest ratio: 25% fewer deaths than its high-risk patients predicted, even though it has the most deaths and the highest crude rate.

Unit Z: Better than expected (O/E = 9 ÷ 10 = 0.90), but not as far below 1.0 as Unit Y.

Compare risk-adjusted performance with the O/E ratio: below 1.0 is better than expected, above 1.0 worse. Crude rates and raw counts mislead when case mix differs.

Patient Safety

Question 11

An outpatient laboratory completed the FMEA ratings in the table. The team plans a tube-handling change expected to lower the occurrence rating for "Hemolysis not recognized" from 5 to 2, with severity and detection unchanged. By how many points will that failure mode's RPN fall?

FMEA for outpatient specimen collection (ratings 1–10)
Failure modeSeverityOccurrenceDetection
Wrong-patient specimen label934
Transport delay583
Wrong test code637
Hemolysis not recognized754
Higher detection ratings mean the failure is less likely to be detected.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

  1. RPN = Severity × Occurrence × Detection.
  2. Original RPN for hemolysis not recognized: 7 × 5 × 4 = 140.
  3. New RPN with occurrence 2: 7 × 2 × 4 = 56.
  4. Reduction: 140 − 56 = 84 points.
  5. Interpretation: at 56 this failure mode falls below wrong-patient label (9 × 3 × 4 = 108), transport delay (5 × 8 × 3 = 120) and wrong test code (6 × 3 × 7 = 126), so the team would address wrong test code next; re-rate after the change is in place to confirm the effect.

3: Uses the sum of the ratings instead of the product: (7 + 5 + 4) − (7 + 2 + 4) = 16 − 13 = 3.

21: Leaves detection out of both RPNs: (7 × 5) − (7 × 2) = 35 − 14 = 21.

56: This is the new RPN (7 × 2 × 4 = 56), not the reduction from the original 140.

84: Correct. Original RPN 7 × 5 × 4 = 140; new RPN 7 × 2 × 4 = 56; reduction 140 − 56 = 84 points.

RPN = S × O × D, so a control that lowers one rating lowers the RPN in proportion; recalculate all three ratings after a change and re-rank the failure modes.

Question 12

During a patient surge, a hospital lets the bed management nurse with the most current knowledge of unit capacity make placement decisions, even when senior executives are present in the command center. Which high-reliability principle does this BEST illustrate?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

Preoccupation with failure: Means treating small failures and near misses as warning signs; the scenario is about who makes the decision.

Reluctance to simplify: Means resisting simple explanations of complex problems; not the focus here.

Sensitivity to operations: Means awareness of what is happening on the front line now. The nurse has this awareness, but the principle shown is moving the decision to her.

Deference to expertise: Correct. Decision authority moves to the person with the most relevant knowledge, regardless of rank, which is deference to expertise.

The five HRO principles: preoccupation with failure, reluctance to simplify, sensitivity to operations, commitment to resilience, deference to expertise.

Question 13

An experienced nurse skipped the required independent double check on a high-alert infusion because the unit was busy, saying that "everyone skips it when it's this hectic." The patient was not harmed. Using a Just Culture approach, what is the MOST appropriate response?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

Coach the nurse and examine why skipping the check has become common: Correct. Choosing to drift from a rule because the risk seems justified or normal is at-risk behavior: coach the individual and remove the system incentives (workload, check design) that make the drift common.

Console the nurse, because skipping the check was an inadvertent human error: Human error is an unintended slip or lapse; this was a conscious choice to skip a step, so it is at-risk behavior.

Begin formal discipline, because a required safety step was skipped: Sanction is for reckless behavior (conscious disregard of a substantial, unjustifiable risk); drift that has become the unit norm is at-risk behavior.

Take no individual action, because no harm reached the patient: Just Culture judges the behavior, not the outcome; the lack of harm does not change the response.

Just Culture: human error → console; at-risk behavior → coach and fix system incentives; reckless behavior → sanction. Judge the behavior, not the outcome.

Quality Review and Accountability

Question 14

A surgeon's ongoing professional practice evaluation (OPPE) profile includes the risk-adjusted indicator below. What is the observed-to-expected (O/E) ratio, and what does it indicate?

OPPE profile: surgical site infections
IndicatorCasesObservedExpected (risk adjusted)
Surgical site infections12096.0
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

  1. O/E ratio = observed events ÷ expected events.
  2. 9 infections ÷ 6.0 expected = 1.50.
  3. A ratio above 1.00 means more events than expected for this case mix.
  4. O/E 1.50 is worse than expected; compare it with the medical staff's OPPE threshold to decide whether focused review is triggered.

O/E = 0.67; better than expected: Divides expected by observed (6 ÷ 9), which reverses the ratio.

O/E = 1.50; better than expected: The ratio is right but the direction is wrong; above 1 means more infections than expected.

O/E = 1.50; worse than expected: Correct. O/E = 9 ÷ 6.0 = 1.50; observed infections exceed the risk-adjusted expected number, so the result is worse than expected and may meet the medical staff's trigger for focused review.

O/E = 3.00; worse than expected: Uses the difference (9 − 6 = 3) instead of the ratio.

O/E = observed ÷ expected; above 1 is worse than expected, below 1 is better.

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