CRC Practice Questions (2026) — Free Sample Questions with Answers

Answer: C

have a time study by the employer showing productivity below the prevailing standard.: A time study sets the commensurate wage under the employer's 14(c) certificate; it is not one of the §511 prerequisites that protect youth.

be referred by the school district after it certifies that integrated work is not feasible.: Section 511 bars schools from contracting with 14(c) employers to place youth in subminimum-wage work; a school certification is not a pathway.

apply for VR and be found ineligible or have a VR plan closed without employment.: Correct. Rehabilitation Act §511 (added by WIOA) requires youth 24 or younger to complete Pre-ETS or transition services, apply for VR and be found ineligible or have an IPE closed without success, and receive career counseling and referral before subminimum-wage work.

obtain an individual determination from the Department of Labor's Wage and Hour Division.: The Wage and Hour Division certifies the employer under 14(c); there is no individual worker determination. This is the wrong level of authority.

Section 14(c) certificates still exist, but WIOA §511 makes youth 24 or younger try VR and transition services and receive career counseling before they may start subminimum-wage work.

Answer: B

permitted without further conditions, because the five-year bar has fully expired.: Elapsed time alone is not enough: A.4.b says that even after five years the counselor weighs coercion, exploitation and harm and carries the burden of showing none occurred.

permitted, but the counselor must be able to show it involves no coercion or harm.: Correct. CRCC Code (2023) A.4.b bars romantic relationships with former clients for five years; after that, the counselor (not the former client) must be able to demonstrate that neither coercion nor harm has occurred. None of the A.4.c vulnerability factors apply to this former client.

prohibited regardless of elapsed time, because any former counseling client is vulnerable.: The permanent bar in A.4.c covers only former clients with listed vulnerabilities (trauma history, psychosis or personality disorder, marked cognitive impairment, chronic treatment need, inability to consent); none applies here.

permitted only after the counselor consults a colleague and documents a boundary extension.: Consultation and documentation (A.4.g–h) govern nonromantic boundary extensions; a romantic relationship is judged under A.4.b instead.

The 2023 Code bars romantic relationships with former clients for five years (A.4.b); after that the counselor bears the burden of showing no coercion or harm, and the bar is permanent for vulnerable former clients (A.4.c).

Answer: A

"I'm going to call the training program on Monday.": Correct. This is commitment language, one of the mobilizing forms (commitment, activation, taking steps) that signal movement toward action.

"I really wish I could be working again.": This is desire (the D in DARN), preparatory change talk that expresses wanting but no intent to act.

"I could probably handle a part-time schedule.": This is ability (the A in DARN), preparatory change talk about capability, not a commitment.

"Having a job would help me pay my rent.": This is a reason (the R in DARN), preparatory change talk about why change would help.

Preparatory change talk is DARN (desire, ability, reasons, need); mobilizing change talk is CAT (commitment, activation, taking steps).

Answer: C

psychiatric stabilization first, followed by substance use treatment once symptoms remit.: Sequential treatment is the pattern that leaves clients shuttled between systems; each untreated disorder worsens the other.

separate mental health and substance use programs that share progress notes.: Parallel treatment with coordination is better than sequential care, but two teams with different philosophies is not the evidence-based model.

integrated treatment in which one team addresses both disorders at the same time.: Correct. Integrated treatment for co-occurring disorders (SAMHSA EBP; integrated dual disorder treatment) has one team treat both disorders together with stage-wise, motivational interventions. It is preferred over parallel treatment.

a period of verified abstinence before mental health and vocational services begin.: Requiring abstinence first is an exclusion barrier that contradicts integrated, stage-wise treatment and zero-exclusion employment practice.

For co-occurring mental and substance use disorders, integrated treatment by one team beats both sequential and parallel care.

Answer: C

initial stage.: The initial stage is orientation: members learn norms, test trust and keep disclosures safe and superficial.

transition stage.: Questioning the leader and testing safety described the transition stage, which is now past; challenge offered with support and trust marks the working stage.

working stage.: Correct. The working stage (Corey) shows high cohesion, deeper self-disclosure, constructive confrontation and feedback among members, and less leader direction.

final stage.: The final stage centers on consolidating learning, handling feelings about ending and planning to transfer gains.

Conflict and testing of the leader mark the transition stage; supportive challenge, deep disclosure and member-led work mark the working stage.

Answer: A

arrange an immediate emergency evaluation and stay with her until help arrives.: Correct. A specific plan, a time frame and available means signal imminent risk, which calls for an immediate emergency evaluation and continuous supervision; CRCC Code (2023) B.2.a permits disclosure to protect a client from serious and foreseeable harm.

complete a written safety plan with her and schedule a follow-up call within 24 hours.: Safety planning suits lower or moderate risk; with a plan, means and a time frame tonight, an outpatient plan is not enough.

ask a family member to stay with her overnight and remove the saved medication.: Family support and means removal help, but with a plan, means and intent tonight and a refusal of care, she needs an emergency evaluation, not home monitoring.

complete a structured suicide risk assessment before deciding on next steps.: Her stated plan, means and time frame already establish imminent risk; further assessment delays the emergency response.

Risk level drives the response: imminent risk (plan, intent, means, time frame) requires emergency evaluation and supervision, not an outpatient safety plan alone.

Answer: A

encourage him to tell his prescriber, since this may be a side effect.: Correct. New restlessness after starting an antipsychotic suggests akathisia, which the prescriber can treat; this comes before workplace changes.

request a standing workstation as a reasonable accommodation.: A reasonable later step, but it works around a possibly treatable medication effect without addressing the cause.

explore whether the restlessness reflects dissatisfaction with the assembly job.: Explains a likely drug effect in psychological terms and delays medical review.

teach relaxation techniques for managing anxiety on the line.: Akathisia is a movement side effect, not anxiety; relaxation alone will not relieve it.

Recognize medication side effects (akathisia, sedation, tremor) that affect work, and route them to the prescriber before redesigning the job.

Answer: D

morning sedation that could make ladder work unsafe.: Sedation is more typical of antipsychotics and some mood stabilizers; it is not lithium’s main hazard in heat.

weight gain that could reduce endurance for climbing.: Lithium can cause weight gain, but this is a long-term comfort issue, not an acute safety risk.

skin photosensitivity during long hours of roof work in direct sunlight.: Marked photosensitivity is linked to drugs such as chlorpromazine; it is not the key lithium risk in this job.

dehydration from sweating, which can push lithium toward toxic levels.: Correct. Lithium has a narrow therapeutic range; fluid and sodium loss raise blood levels, so heavy sweating needs a hydration plan and prescriber input.

Lithium toxicity risk rises with dehydration; hot, strenuous jobs call for hydration and level monitoring planned with the prescriber.

Answer: D

Reassigning her to a vacant inventory-control position: Reassignment to a vacant position is a separate accommodation, used when the current job cannot be accommodated.

Providing a powered lift-assist device for unloading: This is an equipment or device modification, not a change to how job duties are allocated.

Lowering her data-entry productivity standard: The ADA does not require lowering production standards, and doing so is not job restructuring.

Trading her unloading shift for a coworker's data entry: Correct. Job restructuring reallocates or exchanges marginal functions (or changes when or how essential functions are done); occasional, shared unloading is a marginal function here.

Job restructuring redistributes marginal functions or changes how and when essential functions are performed; it never requires removing essential functions.

Answer: C

1. 1. DOT limits (occasional / frequent): light 20 / 10 lb; medium 50 / 25 lb; heavy 100 / 50 lb.
2. 2. Occasional 45 lb falls in medium (over 20, up to 50).
3. 3. Frequent 30 lb exceeds medium's 25 lb and falls in heavy (over 25, up to 50).
4. 4. Rate the job at the higher level: heavy work.

light work.: Light work allows up to 20 pounds occasionally and 10 pounds frequently; both demands here exceed it.

medium work.: The occasional 45 pounds fits medium (20–50 pounds), but frequent lifting of 30 pounds exceeds medium's 25-pound frequent limit.

heavy work.: Correct. Heavy work is 50–100 pounds occasionally or 25–50 pounds frequently; the frequent 30-pound demand places the job at heavy, since a job is rated at the highest level any factor reaches.

very heavy work.: Very heavy requires over 100 pounds occasionally or over 50 pounds frequently; neither applies.

Classify DOT strength by the most demanding factor: check occasional and frequent lifting separately and take the higher level.

Answer: D

her satisfactoriness is low because her abilities exceed the job's requirements.: Satisfactoriness is the employer's view of the worker's performance; the supervisor rates it high.

her satisfaction is high because the employer is pleased with her performance.: This confuses the two outcomes: satisfaction is the worker's own sense that the job meets her needs and values.

her tenure depends mainly on satisfactoriness, so she is likely to stay.: Satisfactoriness predicts whether she is kept, promoted or dismissed; voluntary leaving is predicted by satisfaction.

her satisfactoriness is high, but her low satisfaction predicts she may quit.: Correct. Under MTWA, satisfactoriness (abilities meeting job requirements, judged by the employer) is high, while satisfaction (reinforcers meeting her needs) is low, which predicts voluntary turnover.

MTWA: satisfactoriness (employer side) predicts retention or dismissal; satisfaction (worker side) predicts voluntary quitting; tenure reflects both.

Answer: B

advise her to limit her hours so that her earnings stay below the SGA level.: Steering her to cap earnings is counselor-directed and may be unnecessary; IPS gives clients accurate benefits information so they can decide for themselves.

arrange personalized benefits planning so she can decide with accurate information.: Correct. Personalized work incentives (benefits) planning is a core IPS principle: clients get individualized, accurate guidance on how earnings affect benefits before and during work, so fear of losing benefits does not block employment.

delay the job start until SSA confirms in writing how her benefits will change.: Waiting for SSA paperwork would likely cost her the offer; IPS uses benefits planning alongside a rapid job search, not as a gate.

reassure her that the Trial Work Period fully protects her benefits while she works.: The Trial Work Period helps, but it is limited to nine months and other rules follow; a blanket reassurance is no substitute for individualized planning.

IPS includes personalized benefits planning so that clients can make informed decisions about work; it runs alongside the job search rather than delaying it.

Answer: B

explain the client's diagnosis in general terms so the employer understands the absences.: Disclosing without authorization violates confidentiality, even in general terms and with a valued employer partner (CRCC Code (2023) B.1, B.6).

acknowledge the concern without sharing anything, then ask the client for consent.: Correct. The dual-customer role means responding to the employer while protecting the client's confidentiality; the counselor shares nothing, contacts the client and seeks consent before any further discussion (CRCC Code (2023) B.1).

say that nothing can be discussed and end the call to protect the client.: This protects confidentiality but neglects the employer as a customer and misses the chance to support retention through the client.

advise the employer to apply its attendance policy because VR's role ended.: VR post-placement services continue to support retention; withdrawing serves neither customer.

Serve the employer without breaching confidentiality: respond, then work through the client and obtain consent before sharing anything.

Answer: A

the tuition for the certificate program.: Correct. Training costs are subject to the comparable services and benefits search (and, for higher education, maximum effort to obtain grant aid such as a Pell Grant) before VR funds are used.

vocational counseling and guidance.: Counseling and guidance are exempt from the comparable benefits search under the federal VR regulations.

job search and placement assistance.: Job-related services, including job search and placement, are exempt from the comparable benefits requirement.

the assessment used to determine eligibility.: Assessments for eligibility and VR needs are exempt; requiring a benefits search first would delay them.

VR searches for comparable benefits before purchasing services such as training, but not for assessment, counseling and guidance, referral, job-related services or rehabilitation technology.

Answer: D

the degenerative findings as the main barrier, pending a surgical consult.: This is a biomedical view; mild imaging findings rarely explain disability of this degree on their own.

secondary gain from avoiding work as the main explanation.: Assuming secondary gain is a one-factor, blaming explanation that ignores the fear and family dynamics in the case.

his age and the labor market as reasons a return to work is unrealistic.: Age and labor market are relevant social factors, but treating them as decisive ignores changeable psychological factors.

fear-avoidance beliefs, poor sleep, and changed family roles interacting with his pain.: Correct. A biopsychosocial model integrates biological, psychological (fear-avoidance) and social (family role) factors, which point to targets such as graded activity and family involvement.

Biopsychosocial conceptualization explains disability through interacting biological, psychological and social factors rather than one cause.

Answer: C

propose splitting the difference with a half-time schedule at full duty.: Splitting the difference is positional bargaining; it settles before anyone knows the concerns behind the positions and may not fit the restrictions.

present the physician's written restrictions and ask the employer to accept them as the starting point.: The restrictions are key data, but leading with a demand frames the meeting as a contest of positions before interests are known.

ask each party what concerns lie behind their position, such as productivity or fear of reinjury.: Correct. Principled negotiation separates positions from interests; finding the underlying concerns first opens options such as transitional duty that meet both.

explain the employer's ADA duty to provide reasonable accommodation.: Legal information may help later, but opening with obligations raises defensiveness and skips the interest-finding step.

Interest-based (principled) negotiation starts by identifying the interests behind each position, then builds options for mutual gain.

Answer: C

begins after the usual 24-month waiting period, as for other SSDI beneficiaries.: The 24-month rule is the general SSDI rule, but federal law exempts people with ALS from it.

begins three months after diagnosis, under the rule used for kidney failure.: The three-month rule is tied to the start of dialysis for end-stage renal disease; ALS Medicare is tied to SSDI entitlement.

begins the first month of her SSDI entitlement, with no 24-month wait.: Correct. For ALS, Medicare starts in the month SSDI benefits begin, and the 5-month SSDI waiting period no longer applies to ALS either, so coverage is much faster than the usual 24 months.

begins once she completes the five-month SSDI waiting period.: The ALS Disability Insurance Access Act (2020) removed the five-month waiting period for people with ALS, so SSDI and Medicare start together without that delay.

Most SSDI beneficiaries wait 24 months for Medicare; people with ALS get it when SSDI starts (end-stage renal disease follows separate dialysis-based rules).

Answer: B

is large enough to justify adopting the video agency-wide.: Confuses statistical significance with magnitude; d = 0.05 is far below even a "small" effect (0.2).

is unlikely to be due to chance but too small to matter in practice.: Correct. A large sample makes tiny differences statistically significant; the effect size shows the difference is negligible in practical terms.

is probably a Type I error, because p values are unreliable in large samples.: Large samples increase power, not the Type I error rate, which stays at the chosen alpha.

cannot be interpreted until the study is repeated with a larger sample.: The sample is already large; a bigger one would only make even smaller differences significant.

The p value addresses chance; effect size addresses importance. Judge practical value by the effect size.