CTRS Practice Questions (2026) — Free Sample Questions with Answers

Answer: A

Implicit bias: Correct. An unconscious attitude that shapes decisions without the person realizing it is implicit bias.

Ethnocentrism: Ethnocentrism is a belief that one's own culture is superior; the pattern here was unknowing, not a held belief.

Cultural humility: Cultural humility is the remedy (ongoing self-reflection), not the cause of the pattern.

Stereotype threat: Stereotype threat affects members of the stereotyped group, not the decisions of the provider.

Implicit bias is unconscious and shows up in patterns; reviewing one's own data is a way to detect it.

Answer: C

Multidisciplinary: Multidisciplinary members also assess separately, but each sets and pursues discipline-specific goals with little joint planning.

Transdisciplinary: Transdisciplinary teams use role release, with one member delivering services across disciplinary lines; that is not described here.

Interdisciplinary: Correct. Separate discipline assessments followed by collaborative, shared goal setting at a team meeting is the defining feature of an interdisciplinary team.

Interdisciplinary = separate assessments, shared goals; multidisciplinary = parallel goals; transdisciplinary = role release.

Answer: B

The client will understand the value of community recreation centers and will use them after discharge from the program: "Understand" is not observable, and there is no condition or criterion.

Given a list of community centers, the client will phone one and ask about program fees in two consecutive sessions: Correct. It states the condition (given a list), an observable behavior (phone and ask) and a criterion (two consecutive sessions).

The CTRS will teach the client how to call community centers to ask about program fees during each leisure group: The objective describes the CTRS's behavior, not the client's.

Given a list of community centers, the client will phone one and ask about program fees during the leisure group: The condition and behavior are present, but there is no criterion for success.

A behavioral objective names the client's observable behavior, the condition and a measurable criterion.

Answer: C

An interview about his shopping skills: Self-report is limited by the impaired insight and memory common after TBI.

A paper-and-pencil community skills checklist: A written checklist tests knowledge, not performance in the real environment.

A supervised trial at a nearby grocery store: Correct. Clients with TBI often overestimate their abilities; testing the skill in the real setting gives the most valid data.

Family report of his shopping before injury: Pre-injury history is secondary data and does not show current function.

For clients with impaired insight, observe performance of the skill in the natural setting.

Answer: B

Level IV: Level IV is confused-agitated; this client is not agitated.

Level V: Correct. Level V is confused-inappropriate, non-agitated: the client follows simple commands but is distractible and needs structure.

Level VI: Level VI is confused-appropriate: behavior is goal directed and appropriate, though memory is still impaired.

Level VII: Level VII is automatic-appropriate: daily routines are performed with little confusion.

Rancho IV agitated, V inappropriate but not agitated, VI appropriate but confused, VII automatic-appropriate.

Answer: C

Intra-group: Intra-group is a group cooperating toward a shared goal with no opposing team.

Multilateral: Multilateral involves three or more people each acting against the others, with no teams.

Inter-group: Correct. Two teams, each acting as a unit, compete against each other, which is the inter-group pattern.

Inter-group = team vs team; intra-group = cooperative group goal; multilateral = three or more individuals competing.

Answer: D

Remove him from the game after interruptions: Time-out is more restrictive and is used after positive strategies.

Ignore every interruption he makes: Planned ignoring alone may let disruption continue; it works best paired with reinforcement.

Review the rules after the session: Rule review after the session is too delayed to shape behavior.

Praise him each time he waits his turn: Correct. Positive reinforcement of the desired, incompatible behavior is the least restrictive first strategy.

Plan positive reinforcement of the desired behavior before more restrictive consequences.

Answer: B

1. Identify the client's place: regaining stability, partial control.
2. Prescriptive activities = CTRS control; recreation = shared control; leisure = client control.
3. Shared control places the client in recreation.

Prescriptive activities: Prescriptive activities fit a client whose health is threatened and who needs the CTRS to direct activity.

Recreation: Correct. In the recreation stage the client is regaining stability and shares control with the CTRS.

Leisure: Leisure, at the health promotion end, fits a client who exerts most of the control in pursuit of optimal health.

Continuum: prescriptive activities (CTRS control) → recreation (shared) → leisure (client control).

Answer: C

1. T10 complete injury: full arm function, no sensation in the lower body, low dysreflexia risk.
2. Hours of sitting without sensation = pressure injury risk, so weight shifts come first.

Wearing wrist splints while casting: At T10 the arms and hands are fully functional; splints are not needed.

Watching for autonomic dysreflexia: Dysreflexia is mainly a risk with injuries at T6 and above, so it is not the main concern at T10.

Doing regular pressure-relief weight shifts: Correct. Prolonged sitting without sensation below the injury puts the skin over the sitting bones at high risk, so regular weight shifts are the key precaution.

Avoiding direct sunlight exposure: Sun protection is sensible for anyone outdoors, but it is not the precaution most tied to this injury.

Clients with SCI who sit for long periods need regular pressure relief to prevent pressure injuries; dysreflexia mainly affects injuries at T6 and above.

Answer: D

Continue the plan to the final session: Waiting for the end wastes sessions; monitoring exists so that ineffective approaches are changed during the program.

Lower the criterion for every client: Revising objectives may be needed later for individuals, but no progress across the whole group points first to the method.

End the group and refer clients to other services: Ending the program discards a goal that may be reachable with a different technique.

Review and adjust the facilitation technique: Correct. When nobody progresses, the CTRS examines the intervention itself (prompting, modeling, practice) and modifies it while the program is under way.

Monitoring data that show group-wide lack of progress call for adjusting the intervention technique before changing goals or ending the program.

Answer: A

Ask her to tell you about her children: Correct. Validation accepts the resident's reality and responds to the feelings behind it, here her sense of responsibility and care for her children.

Remind her of the date and that her children are grown: Correcting her with facts is reality orientation, which often increases distress in moderate to late dementia.

Redirect her to the sing-along group: Redirection can calm a resident, but it sidesteps her feelings rather than validating them.

Introduce a remotivation topic such as gardening: Remotivation uses structured discussion of a neutral topic to engage residents; it does not address her expressed need.

Validation responds to the emotion behind a confused statement; reality orientation corrects facts; remotivation and reminiscence are structured discussion techniques.

Answer: A

1. T4 injury plus headache and flushing above the lesion = autonomic dysreflexia.
2. Dysreflexia raises blood pressure, so the response keeps the client upright and removes the stimulus (bladder, catheter, tight clothing) while help is summoned.

Keep him upright and check the catheter tubing: Correct. These are signs of autonomic dysreflexia, a medical emergency in injuries at T6 and above; staying upright helps lower blood pressure while the CTRS looks for the trigger (often a kinked catheter or full bladder) and summons nursing.

Recline him and elevate his legs: Reclining with legs raised is the response to orthostatic hypotension; in dysreflexia it raises blood pressure further.

Move him to a cool area and offer water: This treats heat stress; it does nothing to remove the noxious stimulus driving the dangerous rise in blood pressure.

Document the episode, then notify nursing: Documentation comes after the emergency is managed; delaying action allows blood pressure to keep climbing.

Headache, flushing and sweating above a T6-or-higher injury signal autonomic dysreflexia: sit upright, remove the trigger and get nursing immediately.

Answer: B

Share a brief summary to aid the transition: Sharing may help the transition, but disclosure without authorization breaches confidentiality.

Confirm the client's written authorization: Correct. Before sharing information with an outside provider, the CTRS confirms the client has authorized release to that party.

Refer the caller to the client's physician: Referral shifts the question but does not address whether release is authorized.

Decline to discuss the client at all: Refusing outright may block a helpful transition if the client has authorized or would authorize release.

Communication with outside service providers requires the client's authorization before any information is shared.

Answer: D

Client became aggressive because another client provoked him during cards.: Assigning cause ("because another client provoked him") is a judgment, not a fact.

Client lost his temper again and acted inappropriately with a peer.: "Again" and "inappropriately" are judgmental and vague; they do not say what happened.

Client was probably upset about his delayed discharge and hit a peer.: Speculating about motive does not belong in an incident report.

At 3:10 p.m., client struck a peer's arm once; staff separated them.: Correct. The entry gives the time, the observed action and the staff response in objective terms, without blame or speculation.

Incident entries state who, what, when, where and the actions taken, in objective terms, with no blame, opinion or guessed cause.

Answer: A

Percent completed within the policy time frame: Correct. A timeliness indicator compares completion time to the policy standard, expressed as a rate that can be tracked.

Number of assessments completed each month: A raw count reflects volume and census, not whether assessments were on time.

Client satisfaction with the assessment interview: Satisfaction is a different quality dimension from timeliness.

Staff hours spent on assessments each week: Hours spent measure effort, not whether the time frame was met.

A QI indicator must measure the exact dimension targeted, usually as a rate against a standard.