CV-BC Practice Questions (2026) — Free Sample Questions with Answers

6 free CV-BC questions from our 25-question bank, grouped by content domain. Each answer explains why the right option is right — and why every wrong option is wrong.

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Assessment and Diagnosis

Question 1

A telemetry patient's rhythm shows regular P waves at 80/min. PR intervals are constant at 0.20 seconds on conducted beats, and every third P wave is not followed by a QRS. The QRS is 0.14 seconds wide. BP is 104/66 mm Hg. Which interpretation and plan are correct?

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Answer: B

Mobitz I block; watch closely, since it is usually benign and nodal: Mobitz I (Wenckebach) shows progressive PR lengthening before the dropped beat; here the PR is constant.

Mobitz II block; apply pacing pads and expect a pacemaker workup: Correct. A constant PR with intermittently non-conducted P waves and a wide QRS is Mobitz II, an infranodal block that can suddenly progress to complete heart block. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing and permanent pacemaker evaluation.

Third-degree block; give atropine at once and repeat every 3 minutes: In complete heart block P waves and QRS complexes are unrelated; here conducted beats have a fixed PR, so AV conduction is partly preserved.

Blocked PACs; no treatment is needed if the patient has no symptoms: Blocked PACs arrive early and disrupt the P-P interval; here the P waves are regular, which points to AV block.

Second-degree AV block: Mobitz I = progressive PR prolongation (usually nodal, benign); Mobitz II = fixed PR with dropped QRS (infranodal, needs pacing readiness).

Question 2

A nurse measures Doppler pressures for an ankle-brachial index in a patient with right calf claudication. Brachial systolic pressures: right 140 mm Hg, left 132 mm Hg. Right ankle: dorsalis pedis 84 mm Hg, posterior tibial 70 mm Hg. What is the right-leg ABI?

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Answer: D

0.50: 0.50 uses the lower ankle pressure (70/140). The ABI for each leg uses the higher of that leg's two ankle pressures.

0.53: 0.53 uses the lower ankle pressure and the lower brachial pressure (70/132); both choices are incorrect.

0.64: 0.64 uses the lower brachial pressure (84/132). The denominator is the higher of the two arm pressures.

0.60: Correct. ABI = higher ankle pressure in that leg (84) ÷ higher brachial pressure of either arm (140) = 0.60, which is abnormal (≤0.90) and consistent with PAD.

ABI per leg = highest ankle pressure (DP or PT) in that leg ÷ highest brachial pressure of both arms. ≤0.90 abnormal; 0.91-0.99 borderline; 1.00-1.40 normal; >1.40 noncompressible.

Planning and Implementation

Question 3

A nurse on a cardiac step-down unit receives report on four patients. Which patient should the nurse see first?

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Answer: A

A man 6 hours after PCI with a drug-eluting stent who has new chest pain and ST elevation: Correct. New chest pain with ST elevation after stenting suggests acute stent thrombosis, a STEMI-equivalent emergency needing immediate cath lab activation.

A woman with heart failure whose weight is up 1 kg since yesterday and whose lungs are clear: A 1-kg gain warrants follow-up and possible diuretic adjustment but is not immediately life-threatening.

A man with a potassium of 3.3 mEq/L who has occasional unifocal PVCs on the monitor: Mild hypokalemia with occasional PVCs needs replacement soon, but it is less urgent than an acute coronary occlusion.

A woman with new atrial fibrillation at a rate of 88/min who has a BP of 122/74 mm Hg: Rate-controlled, hemodynamically stable AF is not the priority over a possible stent thrombosis.

Prioritize the patient with signs of an acute, time-critical problem (stent thrombosis = STEMI) over stable or slowly evolving problems.

Question 4

A 54-year-old man had a mechanical aortic valve replacement 2 years ago and takes warfarin. He asks the nurse whether he can switch to apixaban because a friend with atrial fibrillation 'doesn't need blood tests.' What is the most accurate response?

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Answer: C

"Yes, apixaban works as well as warfarin and is safer for every valve type.": DOACs are not approved for mechanical valves; trials of DOACs in mechanical valves showed more clots and bleeding.

"Yes, but only if you also take a daily aspirin with the new medication.": Adding aspirin does not make a DOAC safe in a mechanical valve.

"No, warfarin remains the required anticoagulant for mechanical valves.": Correct. Vitamin K antagonists are the only recommended oral anticoagulants for mechanical heart valves; DOACs are contraindicated.

"No, but you can stop all anticoagulation once the valve has healed in.": Mechanical valves need lifelong anticoagulation; stopping risks valve thrombosis and stroke.

Mechanical heart valve = lifelong warfarin (VKA); DOACs are contraindicated (RE-ALIGN with dabigatran, PROACT Xa with apixaban stopped early for harm).

Evaluation and Modification

Question 5

On day 7 of an unfractionated heparin infusion after a femoral-popliteal bypass, a patient's platelet count has dropped from 260,000/mm³ to 95,000/mm³, and a new right calf DVT is found. There is no bleeding. Which plan should the nurse anticipate?

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Answer: B

Lower the heparin infusion rate and recheck platelets in 24 hours: Any heparin exposure continues the immune process; the drug must be stopped, not reduced.

Stop all heparin, including flushes, and begin argatroban infusion: Correct. A drop of over 50% 5 to 10 days into heparin, with new thrombosis, strongly suggests HIT. Remove all heparin sources and start a non-heparin anticoagulant such as argatroban or bivalirudin.

Switch to enoxaparin, which does not cause immune thrombocytopenia: LMWH cross-reacts with HIT antibodies and is contraindicated in suspected HIT.

Stop heparin, start warfarin now, and give a platelet transfusion: Starting warfarin during acute HIT can cause venous limb gangrene, and platelet transfusion is avoided without bleeding.

Suspected HIT (4Ts): stop all heparin, start a non-heparin anticoagulant, send PF4 antibody testing, delay warfarin until platelets recover, and avoid platelet transfusion unless bleeding.

Patient and Community Education

Question 6

A nurse is identifying patients eligible for Medicare-covered outpatient cardiac rehabilitation. Which patient meets a covered indication?

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Answer: C

A woman with HF with preserved EF (55%) whose symptoms are stable: Medicare's heart failure indication covers only stable chronic HFrEF (LVEF ≤35%); HFpEF is not a covered diagnosis.

A man with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and no structural disease: Atrial fibrillation alone is not a covered cardiac rehab indication.

A man with LVEF 30%, NYHA class II, on stable HF therapy for 6 weeks: Correct. Stable chronic HFrEF (LVEF ≤35%, NYHA II-IV, on optimal therapy for at least 6 weeks) is covered, along with MI in the past year, CABG, PCI, stable angina, valve repair or replacement and heart transplant.

A woman with long-standing hypertension controlled on two drugs: Hypertension alone is not a covered cardiac rehab indication.

Medicare CR indications: MI in the past 12 months, CABG, stable angina, valve repair/replacement, PCI, heart or heart-lung transplant, stable chronic HFrEF (LVEF ≤35%). PAD claudication is covered separately as supervised exercise therapy.

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