MBLEx Practice Questions (2026) — Free Sample Questions with Answers

Answer: B

1. Six weeks after a strain places the tissue in the remodeling (maturation) phase.
2. Collagen laid down in the repair phase is disorganized; loading at this stage guides fibers to align with the lines of tension.
3. So friction plus gentle stretch aims to organize the scar, not to remove or reverse it.

Replaces the scar collagen with new muscle fiber: Muscle heals largely by scar formation; massage cannot convert collagen scar back into contractile muscle fiber.

Helps new collagen align with lines of stress: Correct. At about 6 weeks the tissue is in the remodeling (maturation) phase; collagen laid down in a disorganized pattern during repair is reorganized, and gentle mechanical loading guides the fibers to align with the lines of tension, improving pliability and function.

Stops further collagen production: Collagen production and turnover continue through remodeling; the aim is to organize the new collagen, not to stop it.

Increases random collagen cross-linking: Random cross-links are what form restrictive adhesions; friction and stretch aim to reduce them, not add more.

In remodeling, appropriate loading (friction, gentle stretch, movement) helps collagen align with lines of stress.

Answer: D

1. The pelvis drops on the side opposite the stance leg (right stance, left drop).
2. The stance-side hip abductors hold the pelvis level in single-leg stance.
3. The main hip abductor is the gluteus medius, so the right gluteus medius is weak.

Left gluteus medius: Side error: the swing-side (left) muscle is not the one stabilizing the pelvis during right-leg stance.

Right gluteus maximus: Neighbouring muscle: the gluteus maximus is mainly a hip extensor, not the main frontal-plane pelvic stabilizer.

Right adductor longus: Antagonist: the adductor longus adducts the hip; it does not abduct to hold the pelvis level.

Right gluteus medius: Correct. During single-leg stance, the stance-side gluteus medius holds the pelvis level in the frontal plane; if the right gluteus medius is weak, the unsupported left side drops (Trendelenburg sign).

The stance-leg gluteus medius keeps the pelvis level; when it is weak, the opposite side of the pelvis drops.

Answer: D

1. The gastrocnemius plantar flexes the ankle (and flexes the knee).
2. Its antagonist at the ankle is the tibialis anterior, a dorsiflexor.
3. Active dorsiflexion contracts the antagonist and reflexively inhibits the gastrocnemius.

Actively plantarflex the ankle: Agonist–antagonist confusion: plantar flexion contracts the cramping gastrocnemius itself.

Actively evert the foot: The fibularis muscles evert the foot and assist plantar flexion; they are not antagonists of the gastrocnemius.

Actively flex the knee: The gastrocnemius also flexes the knee, so this contracts the cramping muscle further.

Actively dorsiflex the ankle: Correct. Reciprocal inhibition relaxes a muscle when its antagonist contracts; actively dorsiflexing contracts the tibialis anterior, which reflexively inhibits the gastrocnemius, a plantar flexor.

For reciprocal inhibition, have the client contract the antagonist of the tight muscle.

Answer: B

Elevate her legs on a bolster: Raising the legs does not take the weight of the uterus off the vena cava.

Help her turn onto her left side: Correct. Lying supine late in pregnancy lets the uterus compress the inferior vena cava, reducing blood return to the heart (supine hypotensive syndrome). Turning to the left side relieves the compression.

Continue with lighter pressure: The symptoms come from her position, not the pressure; changing pressure does not help.

Offer water and continue supine: Staying supine maintains the compression causing the symptoms.

From the second half of pregnancy, use side-lying (or semi-reclined) positioning; if a supine client feels faint, turn her onto her left side.

Answer: B

1. Recent surgery plus immobility raises clot risk.
2. Unilateral calf warmth, redness, swelling and pain match DVT.
3. A loose clot can travel to the lungs, so massage is postponed and the client is referred.

Massage only the unaffected leg and back: Treats a suspected DVT as a local contraindication; a possible clot is a systemic risk, so the whole session is postponed until it is ruled out.

Postpone massage and refer promptly: Correct. A warm, red, swollen and painful calf after surgery suggests deep vein thrombosis. Pressure could dislodge the clot and cause a pulmonary embolism, so massage is postponed and the client is referred promptly.

Apply a cold pack and elevate the calf: Treating the symptoms delays the needed medical evaluation, and suggesting care for a suspected clot is outside scope.

Use light effleurage toward the heart: Even light strokes toward the heart over a suspected clot could dislodge it; reducing swelling is not the priority.

Suspected DVT (unilateral warm, red, swollen, painful calf, especially after surgery or immobility) is a systemic contraindication: no massage, refer promptly.

Answer: D

1. Three days after injury with swelling, warmth and tenderness means the acute inflammatory stage.
2. The acute site is a local contraindication to deep, focused or stimulating work such as friction, deep petrissage and tapotement.
3. Light strokes proximal to the injury, directed toward the heart, support fluid return without stressing the site.

Tapotement around the wrist joint: Incorrect. Percussion is stimulating and would jar tender, inflamed tissue. It does not help fluid move away from the injury.

Cross-fiber friction on the sprained ligament: Incorrect. Friction is for subacute or chronic tissue. On an acutely inflamed ligament it can increase inflammation and disrupt early repair.

Deep petrissage over the swelling: Incorrect. Deep kneading directly over acutely inflamed, swollen tissue is locally contraindicated and may increase pain and swelling.

Light strokes proximal to the injury: Correct. In the acute inflammatory stage the injured site is a local contraindication to deep or vigorous work. Light strokes on the forearm above the wrist, directed toward the elbow, can support fluid return without stressing the healing tissue.

Over an acute injury, avoid deep, focused or stimulating strokes on the site. Work proximally with light strokes directed toward the heart.

Answer: B

1. The pain eases while nearby tissue, not the painful joint, is being stimulated.
2. Touch and pressure travel on large-diameter sensory fibers that inhibit pain transmission in the spinal cord.
3. So the short-term relief is best explained by gate control, not by any change in the joint itself.

Rapid regrowth of joint cartilage: Incorrect. Massage does not regenerate articular cartilage, and no tissue repair could happen within minutes.

Spinal gating of pain by touch input: Correct. Pressure and touch stimulate large-diameter (A-beta) sensory fibers whose input inhibits transmission of pain signals in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord (gate control theory), so perceived pain falls while nearby tissue is being stimulated.

Sympathetic arousal blocking pain fibers: Incorrect. Rhythmic massage tends to lower sympathetic arousal; the relief here comes from sensory input competing with pain signals, not from a stress response.

Local vasoconstriction in the knee: Incorrect. Massage produces local vasodilation in the worked tissue, not vasoconstriction, and the knee itself is not being worked.

Touch and pressure input can "close the gate" to pain signals in the spinal cord, one accepted reason massage reduces perceived pain.

Answer: A

1. Active painful, passive full and pain-free.
2. Inert tissue is unlikely; contractile tissue (abductor muscle-tendon) is suspected.
3. Resisted isometric abduction loads the muscle without joint motion and confirms it.

Resisted isometric abduction: Correct. Pain on active but not passive movement points to contractile tissue (muscle or tendon); a resisted isometric test loads the abductors without moving the joint and confirms it if it reproduces the pain.

Repeated active abduction: Repeats the painful movement without separating contractile from inert tissue.

Passive flexion of the same shoulder: Tests inert tissue in another plane and does not load the suspected abductors.

Passive abduction with overpressure: Stresses inert tissue (capsule, ligament), which pain-free passive motion has already largely cleared.

Active pain with pain-free passive motion suggests contractile tissue; confirm with resisted isometric testing.

Answer: A

1. The right forefoot slaps down after heel strike and the right knee lifts high to clear the toes.
2. Lowering the forefoot and clearing the toes both depend on the ankle dorsiflexors.
3. So the right tibialis anterior is weak; refer, since foot drop can have a nerve cause.

Right tibialis anterior: Correct. The tibialis anterior dorsiflexes the ankle and eccentrically lowers the forefoot after heel strike; when it is weak, the foot slaps down and the client lifts the knee higher (steppage gait) so the toes do not drag. Because foot drop can have a nerve cause, the therapist also refers.

Left tibialis anterior: Side error: the weak dorsiflexor is on the side whose foot slaps, which is the right.

Right gastrocnemius: Antagonist: the gastrocnemius plantarflexes; weakness reduces push-off rather than causing foot slap after heel strike.

Right tibialis posterior: Neighbouring muscle: the tibialis posterior plantarflexes, inverts and supports the arch; it does not lower the forefoot after heel strike.

Foot slap with a high-stepping swing points to weak ankle dorsiflexors, chiefly the tibialis anterior on the same side.

Answer: C

1. The client is a minor (15 years old).
2. Minors generally cannot give legally valid informed consent, so her signatures on the intake and consent forms are not sufficient.
3. So obtain a parent's or guardian's consent before any hands-on work, then plan the session as usual.

Proceed with light pressure, fully clothed: Lighter, clothed work does not fix the consent problem; a minor's own signature is not valid consent for treatment.

Proceed, since her forms are complete: Complete forms are not enough: a minor generally cannot give legally valid consent, so a parent or guardian must consent.

Obtain a parent or guardian's consent: Correct. Minors generally cannot give legally valid informed consent, so the massage therapist obtains consent from a parent or legal guardian before any treatment; many practices also require the guardian to be present.

Have her sign a liability waiver: A waiver signed by a minor adds nothing; the missing element is consent from a parent or guardian.

A minor's own signature is not valid informed consent; obtain a parent's or legal guardian's consent before treating.

Answer: D

1. Check scope: no diagnosis, no medication advice.
2. Check confidentiality: share only what is relevant to the referral.
3. Choose the objective, measurable finding written in standard terminology.

"The client most likely has a herniated disc in her neck.": States a diagnosis, which is outside the massage therapist's scope.

"The client should lower her pain medication.": Recommending a medication change is outside scope and is the physician's decision.

"The client is going through a hard divorce.": Personal disclosures not needed for the referral should not be shared, even with consent to send a report.

"Active right cervical rotation has increased.": Correct. Reports to other healthcare providers use objective, measurable findings in standard terminology and stay within the massage therapist's scope.

When communicating with other providers, report objective findings and treatment response in standard terms; do not diagnose, prescribe or share unneeded personal details.

Answer: D

1. Identify the request: a romantic relationship with a current client.
2. Recognize the workaround: stopping care to date does not erase the power differential and trust.
3. Respond: decline clearly and keep the relationship professional.

Accept, since the client will no longer be a client: Ending care for the purpose of dating still exploits the therapeutic relationship.

Decide after the final session of the series: Leaves the romantic question open and sexualizes the remaining sessions.

Accept after transferring the records to a colleague: Moving the file does not change why the relationship formed or the trust involved.

Decline and keep the relationship professional: Correct. Ending the therapeutic relationship in order to date the client does not remove the power differential or the trust built in sessions; codes of ethics treat sexualizing the client relationship as misconduct, so the therapist declines.

A therapist never sexualizes or romanticizes the client relationship, and ending treatment in order to date a client is not a loophole.

Answer: B

Countertransference: Countertransference describes the therapist's feelings toward the client, not the client's feelings toward the therapist.

Transference: Correct. Transference is when a client directs personal feelings or needs onto the therapist (here, treating the therapist as a confidant and friend) and is a common result of the trust and nurturing touch in sessions.

Dual relationship: A dual relationship is a second, separate role (friend, employer, business partner); no second role exists yet.

Informed consent: Informed consent is agreement to treatment after explanation; it does not describe these personal attachments.

Transference is the client's personalization of the relationship; countertransference is the therapist's. The therapist manages both by keeping boundaries clear.

Answer: A

Help her cover up and exit by the posted route: Correct. Every alarm is treated as real: the therapist helps the client wrap herself in the sheet or a robe and leaves with her by the posted evacuation route; client safety comes before modesty and the session.

Stay in the room until staff confirm the alarm: Waiting for confirmation wastes evacuation time; an alarm is treated as real until officials say otherwise.

Have her dress fully before leaving the room: Dressing fully delays evacuation; wrapping in the sheet or a robe protects modesty while leaving at once.

Take the elevator to reach the exit faster: Elevators are avoided during a fire alarm because they can stop or open onto a fire floor; use the stairs.

Know the posted evacuation route; when an alarm sounds, cover the client quickly and leave by the stairs without waiting.

Answer: C

Cleaning alone sterilizes the surface: Cleaning removes soil but does not kill microbes, and sterilization is a separate, higher level of decontamination.

Disinfectants work only on wet surfaces: Disinfectants are applied to the cleaned surface and must stay wet for the label contact time; the surface need not already be wet.

Residue and oils reduce disinfectant effectiveness: Correct. Cleaning physically removes lubricant, skin oils and organic matter; left in place, they shield microbes and can inactivate the disinfectant.

Cleaning removes leftover disinfectant from earlier: The order is the reverse: soil is cleaned off first so the disinfectant can then work on a clean surface.

Clean first (remove soil), then disinfect (kill microbes), following the product label's contact time.