MCAT Practice Questions (2026) — Free Sample Questions with Answers

20 free MCAT questions from our 150-question bank, grouped by content domain. Each answer explains why the right option is right — and why every wrong option is wrong.

0 of 20 answered — answer a question to check it Take a full MCAT practice test

Chemical and Physical Foundations of Biological Systems

Question 1

A dentist holds a small concave mirror with a radius of curvature of 4.0 cm so that it is 1.0 cm from a tooth. Which description best fits the image of the tooth the dentist sees?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

  1. 1. Focal length: cm.
  2. 2. Mirror equation: cm, so cm.
  3. 3. Negative means a virtual image behind the mirror.
  4. 4. Magnification: , so the image is upright and twice the size.

Virtual, upright, and 2 times the size of the tooth: Correct. With cm and cm, , so cm (virtual, behind the mirror) and (upright, magnified).

Real, inverted, and half the size of the tooth: A reduced real image forms only when the object is beyond the center of curvature (here, beyond 4.0 cm).

Virtual, upright, and about 1.3 times the size of the tooth: Uses the radius (4.0 cm) as the focal length; for a spherical mirror cm.

Real, inverted, and 2 times the size of the tooth: Gets the size right but the type wrong: the image distance is negative, so the image is virtual and upright.

For a concave mirror, an object inside the focal point gives a virtual, upright, magnified image; remember before using . (Skill 2: scientific reasoning and problem-solving.)

Question 2

Separating and Quantifying a Three-Component Mixture

1Acid–base extraction separates organic compounds by converting some of them into water-soluble ions. A student was given 1.00 g of a mixture of benzoic acid ( 4.2), 2-naphthol ( 9.5), and naphthalene, a hydrocarbon with no acidic proton, and was asked to separate the three components and identify each by spectroscopy. The of carbonic acid, the conjugate acid of bicarbonate, is 6.4.

2The mixture was dissolved in diethyl ether and extracted twice with saturated aqueous NaHCO, with the separatory funnel vented after each shaking. The aqueous layer was acidified with HCl, and the solid that precipitated was collected as fraction 1. The ether layer was then extracted with 1 M NaOH, and this aqueous layer was acidified in the same way to give fraction 2. The remaining ether layer was dried and evaporated to give fraction 3. Each fraction was analyzed by IR spectroscopy (Table 1), and its purity was checked by thin-layer chromatography (TLC) on silica gel.

3To estimate how much 2-naphthol was recovered, the student dissolved all of fraction 2 in ethanol to a total volume of 100 mL. A sample of this solution was diluted 10-fold with ethanol, and its absorbance at 330 nm in a 1.0 cm cuvette was 0.40. The student applied the Beer–Lambert law, , using a molar absorptivity for 2-naphthol at this wavelength of Mcm, determined from standard solutions. The dried mass of fraction 2 was also recorded so that the two estimates of recovery could be compared.

Table 1. IR absorptions of the three fractions
FractionMajor IR absorptions (cm⁻¹)
12500–3300 (very broad); 1685 (strong); 1600; 1450
23200–3550 (broad); 1630; 1600; 1210
33050 (weak); 1600; 1510; no bands at 1650–1800 or 3100–3600

Pure samples of the three compounds are spotted on one silica gel TLC plate, which is developed with 4:1 hexane–ethyl acetate. Which order of Rf values, from highest to lowest, is expected?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

benzoic acid > 2-naphthol > naphthalene: This reverses the order. On polar silica, the most polar compound binds most strongly and travels the shortest distance.

naphthalene > 2-naphthol > benzoic acid: Correct. Silica gel is a polar stationary phase, and the eluent is mostly nonpolar. Nonpolar naphthalene interacts least and has the highest Rf; 2-naphthol has one hydrogen-bonding OH; benzoic acid, the most polar, adsorbs most strongly and has the lowest Rf.

naphthalene > benzoic acid > 2-naphthol: This places the carboxylic acid above the phenol. A COOH group binds silica more strongly than a single phenolic OH, through two hydrogen-bonding sites and its higher acidity.

2-naphthol > naphthalene > benzoic acid: This puts the phenol above the hydrocarbon. Naphthalene cannot hydrogen-bond to silica, so it moves fastest.

In normal-phase chromatography (polar stationary phase), Rf decreases as polarity and hydrogen-bonding ability increase. Skill 2: predicting chromatographic behavior from structure.

Question 3

Separating and Quantifying a Three-Component Mixture

1Acid–base extraction separates organic compounds by converting some of them into water-soluble ions. A student was given 1.00 g of a mixture of benzoic acid ( 4.2), 2-naphthol ( 9.5), and naphthalene, a hydrocarbon with no acidic proton, and was asked to separate the three components and identify each by spectroscopy. The of carbonic acid, the conjugate acid of bicarbonate, is 6.4.

2The mixture was dissolved in diethyl ether and extracted twice with saturated aqueous NaHCO, with the separatory funnel vented after each shaking. The aqueous layer was acidified with HCl, and the solid that precipitated was collected as fraction 1. The ether layer was then extracted with 1 M NaOH, and this aqueous layer was acidified in the same way to give fraction 2. The remaining ether layer was dried and evaporated to give fraction 3. Each fraction was analyzed by IR spectroscopy (Table 1), and its purity was checked by thin-layer chromatography (TLC) on silica gel.

3To estimate how much 2-naphthol was recovered, the student dissolved all of fraction 2 in ethanol to a total volume of 100 mL. A sample of this solution was diluted 10-fold with ethanol, and its absorbance at 330 nm in a 1.0 cm cuvette was 0.40. The student applied the Beer–Lambert law, , using a molar absorptivity for 2-naphthol at this wavelength of Mcm, determined from standard solutions. The dried mass of fraction 2 was also recorded so that the two estimates of recovery could be compared.

Table 1. IR absorptions of the three fractions
FractionMajor IR absorptions (cm⁻¹)
12500–3300 (very broad); 1685 (strong); 1600; 1450
23200–3550 (broad); 1630; 1600; 1210
33050 (weak); 1600; 1510; no bands at 1650–1800 or 3100–3600

Based on paragraph 3, what is the concentration of 2-naphthol in the 100 mL ethanol solution of fraction 2?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

  1. c(measured) = A/(εb) = 0.40 / (2.0 × 10³ × 1.0) = 2.0 × 10⁻⁴ M.
  2. The measured sample was a 10-fold dilution of the stock.
  3. c(stock) = 10 × 2.0 × 10⁻⁴ = 2.0 × 10⁻³ M.

2.0 × 10⁻⁵ M: This divides by the dilution factor instead of multiplying: the undiluted solution is more concentrated than the sample measured.

2.0 × 10⁻³ M: Correct. c = A/(εb) = 0.40 / (2.0 × 10³ M⁻¹cm⁻¹ × 1.0 cm) = 2.0 × 10⁻⁴ M in the diluted sample. The stock solution was 10 times more concentrated: 2.0 × 10⁻³ M.

2.0 × 10⁻⁴ M: This is the concentration of the diluted sample that was measured; it leaves out the 10-fold dilution.

8.0 × 10² M: This multiplies absorbance by ε instead of dividing, which gives an impossible concentration.

Rearrange Beer–Lambert to c = A/(εb), then multiply by the dilution factor to return to the original solution. Skill 2: quantitative spectroscopy.

Question 4

Separating and Quantifying a Three-Component Mixture

1Acid–base extraction separates organic compounds by converting some of them into water-soluble ions. A student was given 1.00 g of a mixture of benzoic acid ( 4.2), 2-naphthol ( 9.5), and naphthalene, a hydrocarbon with no acidic proton, and was asked to separate the three components and identify each by spectroscopy. The of carbonic acid, the conjugate acid of bicarbonate, is 6.4.

2The mixture was dissolved in diethyl ether and extracted twice with saturated aqueous NaHCO, with the separatory funnel vented after each shaking. The aqueous layer was acidified with HCl, and the solid that precipitated was collected as fraction 1. The ether layer was then extracted with 1 M NaOH, and this aqueous layer was acidified in the same way to give fraction 2. The remaining ether layer was dried and evaporated to give fraction 3. Each fraction was analyzed by IR spectroscopy (Table 1), and its purity was checked by thin-layer chromatography (TLC) on silica gel.

3To estimate how much 2-naphthol was recovered, the student dissolved all of fraction 2 in ethanol to a total volume of 100 mL. A sample of this solution was diluted 10-fold with ethanol, and its absorbance at 330 nm in a 1.0 cm cuvette was 0.40. The student applied the Beer–Lambert law, , using a molar absorptivity for 2-naphthol at this wavelength of Mcm, determined from standard solutions. The dried mass of fraction 2 was also recorded so that the two estimates of recovery could be compared.

Table 1. IR absorptions of the three fractions
FractionMajor IR absorptions (cm⁻¹)
12500–3300 (very broad); 1685 (strong); 1600; 1450
23200–3550 (broad); 1630; 1600; 1210
33050 (weak); 1600; 1510; no bands at 1650–1800 or 3100–3600

Based on Table 1, which absorption best distinguishes fraction 1 from fraction 2?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

The broad band near 3300 cm⁻¹, from an O–H stretch: Both fractions show a broad O–H band (a carboxylic acid O–H and a phenol O–H), so this band does not distinguish them.

The strong peak at 1685 cm⁻¹, from a C=O stretch: Correct. Table 1 lists a strong 1685 cm⁻¹ band only for fraction 1. A strong band near 1700 cm⁻¹ is the C=O stretch of a carboxylic acid (benzoic acid); 2-naphthol has no carbonyl group.

The peak near 1600 cm⁻¹, from aromatic C=C stretching: All three fractions are aromatic and show a band near 1600 cm⁻¹, so it does not distinguish them.

The weak peak at 3050 cm⁻¹, from aromatic C–H stretching: Table 1 lists this band only for fraction 3. Aromatic C–H stretching is common to all three compounds and is hidden under the broad O–H bands in fractions 1 and 2.

Look for a band one compound has and the other lacks. A strong peak near 1700 cm⁻¹ marks C=O, and a broad 3200–3550 cm⁻¹ band marks O–H. Skill 4: interpreting tabulated spectral data.

Question 5

Why does extraction with aqueous NaHCO₃ remove benzoic acid, but not 2-naphthol, from the ether layer?

Separating and Quantifying a Three-Component Mixture

1Acid–base extraction separates organic compounds by converting some of them into water-soluble ions. A student was given 1.00 g of a mixture of benzoic acid ( 4.2), 2-naphthol ( 9.5), and naphthalene, a hydrocarbon with no acidic proton, and was asked to separate the three components and identify each by spectroscopy. The of carbonic acid, the conjugate acid of bicarbonate, is 6.4.

2The mixture was dissolved in diethyl ether and extracted twice with saturated aqueous NaHCO, with the separatory funnel vented after each shaking. The aqueous layer was acidified with HCl, and the solid that precipitated was collected as fraction 1. The ether layer was then extracted with 1 M NaOH, and this aqueous layer was acidified in the same way to give fraction 2. The remaining ether layer was dried and evaporated to give fraction 3. Each fraction was analyzed by IR spectroscopy (Table 1), and its purity was checked by thin-layer chromatography (TLC) on silica gel.

3To estimate how much 2-naphthol was recovered, the student dissolved all of fraction 2 in ethanol to a total volume of 100 mL. A sample of this solution was diluted 10-fold with ethanol, and its absorbance at 330 nm in a 1.0 cm cuvette was 0.40. The student applied the Beer–Lambert law, , using a molar absorptivity for 2-naphthol at this wavelength of Mcm, determined from standard solutions. The dried mass of fraction 2 was also recorded so that the two estimates of recovery could be compared.

Table 1. IR absorptions of the three fractions
FractionMajor IR absorptions (cm⁻¹)
12500–3300 (very broad); 1685 (strong); 1600; 1450
23200–3550 (broad); 1630; 1600; 1210
33050 (weak); 1600; 1510; no bands at 1650–1800 or 3100–3600
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

Bicarbonate is a strong enough base to deprotonate benzoic acid but not 2-naphthol.: Correct. An acid is largely deprotonated by a base whose conjugate acid has a higher pKa. Benzoic acid (pKa 4.2) is far below carbonic acid (6.4), so it becomes water-soluble benzoate. 2-Naphthol (pKa 9.5) is above 6.4, so it stays neutral in the ether until the stronger base NaOH is used.

Bicarbonate converts 2-naphthol into an ester that remains in the ether layer.: Bicarbonate is a weak base, not an acylating agent; it forms no ester with a phenol.

2-Naphthol is less polar than benzoic acid, so its anion is insoluble in water.: Ionized phenoxide is water-soluble, which is why the NaOH extraction removes it; the issue is whether bicarbonate can form the ion.

Neutral benzoic acid is more soluble in water than in diethyl ether.: Neutral benzoic acid prefers the organic layer; it moves into water only after it is deprotonated.

In an acid–base extraction, a base removes acids that are stronger than its own conjugate acid (lower pKa). NaHCO₃ takes carboxylic acids, and NaOH also takes phenols. Skill 1: relating pKa to separation behavior.

Critical Analysis and Reasoning Skills

Question 6

Passage 6

1Among the tools that public health agencies have embraced in recent decades, few have been greeted as warmly as the "nudge": an alteration in the way choices are presented that steers people toward healthier options without forbidding any alternative. Place fruit at eye level in the cafeteria and the pastries at the back; make organ donation or retirement saving the default and require those who object to opt out. Defenders describe such measures as uniquely respectful of liberty. Nothing is banned, no one is fined, and anyone who wishes to choose otherwise remains free to do so. The appeal to officials is easy to see as well: such measures are cheap, require no new legislation, and spare them the unpopular work of prohibition.

2The argument has force, and it is worth stating why. Every choice is presented in some way; there is no neutral cafeteria in which food is arranged by no one for no purpose. If arrangement is unavoidable, the defenders reason, it may as well be arranged to promote health. Refusing to nudge is not abstaining from influence but merely choosing influence of a different, unexamined kind—whatever pleases the vendor, or whatever happened to be convenient for the staff who stocked the shelves.

3Yet the claim that nudges preserve liberty depends on a picture of freedom that is too thin. On that picture, I am free so long as the alternatives remain formally available—so long as I could, if I wished, reach past the fruit for the pastry. My freedom, so understood, is measured by the menu rather than by my attention to it. But nudges work precisely because people do not, in the ordinary course of things, scrutinize the arrangement of their options. A default succeeds to the degree that it is not noticed. The measure that most reliably changes behavior is therefore the one least likely to engage the deliberation through which people exercise the liberty the defenders invoke.

4This does not make nudges illegitimate, but it relocates the question of their legitimacy. The relevant test is not whether an alternative exists but whether the nudge could survive being made public. A cafeteria that posts a sign explaining that fruit is placed at eye level to encourage healthier eating, and a pension plan that tells employees plainly why enrollment is automatic, invite the very scrutiny that the nudge would otherwise bypass. If the measure keeps most of its effect once disclosed, that is some evidence that it works with the considered preferences of those it steers; if it loses most of its effect, that is evidence that it was working against them.

5Some defenders will object that disclosure would defeat the purpose—that a nudge announced is a nudge disarmed. The evidence on this point is less settled than either side tends to admit, but the objection, if true, would prove too much. A policy that can achieve its ends only so long as its targets remain unaware of it has more in common with manipulation than with the respectful guidance its champions describe. Public health has every reason to arrange choices thoughtfully. It has no reason to prefer arrangements that cannot bear the light.

Which finding, if true, would most WEAKEN the author's claim in paragraph 3?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

Defaults change behavior more than information campaigns do.: Consistent with the author, who grants that defaults reliably change behavior.

People subject to defaults usually notice them and say they deliberately chose to accept them.: Correct. Paragraph 3 rests on the premise that nudges work because people "do not … scrutinize the arrangement of their options"; this finding contradicts it.

Cafeteria layouts differ widely from one culture to another.: Variation in layouts says nothing about whether people deliberate over them.

A minority of people who are presented with organ donation defaults nonetheless choose to opt out.: A minority opting out leaves intact the claim that most people do not scrutinize defaults.

To weaken, target the empirical premise an argument rests on—here, that defaults succeed because they go unnoticed. Skill: Reasoning Beyond the Text.

Question 7

Passage 6

1Among the tools that public health agencies have embraced in recent decades, few have been greeted as warmly as the "nudge": an alteration in the way choices are presented that steers people toward healthier options without forbidding any alternative. Place fruit at eye level in the cafeteria and the pastries at the back; make organ donation or retirement saving the default and require those who object to opt out. Defenders describe such measures as uniquely respectful of liberty. Nothing is banned, no one is fined, and anyone who wishes to choose otherwise remains free to do so. The appeal to officials is easy to see as well: such measures are cheap, require no new legislation, and spare them the unpopular work of prohibition.

2The argument has force, and it is worth stating why. Every choice is presented in some way; there is no neutral cafeteria in which food is arranged by no one for no purpose. If arrangement is unavoidable, the defenders reason, it may as well be arranged to promote health. Refusing to nudge is not abstaining from influence but merely choosing influence of a different, unexamined kind—whatever pleases the vendor, or whatever happened to be convenient for the staff who stocked the shelves.

3Yet the claim that nudges preserve liberty depends on a picture of freedom that is too thin. On that picture, I am free so long as the alternatives remain formally available—so long as I could, if I wished, reach past the fruit for the pastry. My freedom, so understood, is measured by the menu rather than by my attention to it. But nudges work precisely because people do not, in the ordinary course of things, scrutinize the arrangement of their options. A default succeeds to the degree that it is not noticed. The measure that most reliably changes behavior is therefore the one least likely to engage the deliberation through which people exercise the liberty the defenders invoke.

4This does not make nudges illegitimate, but it relocates the question of their legitimacy. The relevant test is not whether an alternative exists but whether the nudge could survive being made public. A cafeteria that posts a sign explaining that fruit is placed at eye level to encourage healthier eating, and a pension plan that tells employees plainly why enrollment is automatic, invite the very scrutiny that the nudge would otherwise bypass. If the measure keeps most of its effect once disclosed, that is some evidence that it works with the considered preferences of those it steers; if it loses most of its effect, that is evidence that it was working against them.

5Some defenders will object that disclosure would defeat the purpose—that a nudge announced is a nudge disarmed. The evidence on this point is less settled than either side tends to admit, but the objection, if true, would prove too much. A policy that can achieve its ends only so long as its targets remain unaware of it has more in common with manipulation than with the respectful guidance its champions describe. Public health has every reason to arrange choices thoughtfully. It has no reason to prefer arrangements that cannot bear the light.

Suppose researchers found that explaining the purpose of automatic enrollment in a retirement plan had almost no effect on enrollment rates. According to the author's reasoning, this finding would suggest that the default:

Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

is a form of manipulation that cannot bear disclosure.: Reverses the inference: manipulation is marked by losing effect when disclosed, which did not happen.

confirms the defenders' objection that disclosure disarms a nudge.: The finding refutes this objection for this case, since the nudge was not disarmed.

preserves employees' liberty only because the alternatives remain formally available to them.: This is the "too thin" picture of freedom the author rejects in paragraph 3.

works with, rather than against, the considered preferences of the employees it steers.: Correct. By paragraph 4's test, a nudge that "keeps most of its effect once disclosed" is evidence of working with considered preferences.

Run the author's test on the new case: kept effect after disclosure means it passes. Skill: Reasoning Beyond the Text.

Question 8

Passage 6

1Among the tools that public health agencies have embraced in recent decades, few have been greeted as warmly as the "nudge": an alteration in the way choices are presented that steers people toward healthier options without forbidding any alternative. Place fruit at eye level in the cafeteria and the pastries at the back; make organ donation or retirement saving the default and require those who object to opt out. Defenders describe such measures as uniquely respectful of liberty. Nothing is banned, no one is fined, and anyone who wishes to choose otherwise remains free to do so. The appeal to officials is easy to see as well: such measures are cheap, require no new legislation, and spare them the unpopular work of prohibition.

2The argument has force, and it is worth stating why. Every choice is presented in some way; there is no neutral cafeteria in which food is arranged by no one for no purpose. If arrangement is unavoidable, the defenders reason, it may as well be arranged to promote health. Refusing to nudge is not abstaining from influence but merely choosing influence of a different, unexamined kind—whatever pleases the vendor, or whatever happened to be convenient for the staff who stocked the shelves.

3Yet the claim that nudges preserve liberty depends on a picture of freedom that is too thin. On that picture, I am free so long as the alternatives remain formally available—so long as I could, if I wished, reach past the fruit for the pastry. My freedom, so understood, is measured by the menu rather than by my attention to it. But nudges work precisely because people do not, in the ordinary course of things, scrutinize the arrangement of their options. A default succeeds to the degree that it is not noticed. The measure that most reliably changes behavior is therefore the one least likely to engage the deliberation through which people exercise the liberty the defenders invoke.

4This does not make nudges illegitimate, but it relocates the question of their legitimacy. The relevant test is not whether an alternative exists but whether the nudge could survive being made public. A cafeteria that posts a sign explaining that fruit is placed at eye level to encourage healthier eating, and a pension plan that tells employees plainly why enrollment is automatic, invite the very scrutiny that the nudge would otherwise bypass. If the measure keeps most of its effect once disclosed, that is some evidence that it works with the considered preferences of those it steers; if it loses most of its effect, that is evidence that it was working against them.

5Some defenders will object that disclosure would defeat the purpose—that a nudge announced is a nudge disarmed. The evidence on this point is less settled than either side tends to admit, but the objection, if true, would prove too much. A policy that can achieve its ends only so long as its targets remain unaware of it has more in common with manipulation than with the respectful guidance its champions describe. Public health has every reason to arrange choices thoughtfully. It has no reason to prefer arrangements that cannot bear the light.

Which of the following policies would best satisfy the test the author proposes?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

A cafeteria places fruit at eye level and leaves the pastries available at the back of the counter.: This meets the defenders' test (every alternative remains available), but nothing is disclosed, so it has not been shown to survive publicity, the author's test.

A clinic auto-books follow-up screenings and explains in writing why, and how to cancel.: Correct. Like paragraph 4's pension plan, this default is disclosed with its purpose, inviting scrutiny rather than bypassing it.

A pension plan enrolls workers automatically and lets them opt out at any time, without explaining why.: Close to paragraph 4's example, but that plan "tells employees plainly why enrollment is automatic"; an unexplained default with an exit only preserves the alternative.

A city announces, after public hearings, that it will ban the sale of oversized sugary drinks.: The measure is public, but a ban removes the alternative rather than arranging choices, so it is not a nudge the author's test could apply to.

Apply the author's test (a nudge that survives being made public) rather than the defenders' test (alternatives remain available). Skill: Reasoning Beyond the Text.

Question 9

Passage 6

1Among the tools that public health agencies have embraced in recent decades, few have been greeted as warmly as the "nudge": an alteration in the way choices are presented that steers people toward healthier options without forbidding any alternative. Place fruit at eye level in the cafeteria and the pastries at the back; make organ donation or retirement saving the default and require those who object to opt out. Defenders describe such measures as uniquely respectful of liberty. Nothing is banned, no one is fined, and anyone who wishes to choose otherwise remains free to do so. The appeal to officials is easy to see as well: such measures are cheap, require no new legislation, and spare them the unpopular work of prohibition.

2The argument has force, and it is worth stating why. Every choice is presented in some way; there is no neutral cafeteria in which food is arranged by no one for no purpose. If arrangement is unavoidable, the defenders reason, it may as well be arranged to promote health. Refusing to nudge is not abstaining from influence but merely choosing influence of a different, unexamined kind—whatever pleases the vendor, or whatever happened to be convenient for the staff who stocked the shelves.

3Yet the claim that nudges preserve liberty depends on a picture of freedom that is too thin. On that picture, I am free so long as the alternatives remain formally available—so long as I could, if I wished, reach past the fruit for the pastry. My freedom, so understood, is measured by the menu rather than by my attention to it. But nudges work precisely because people do not, in the ordinary course of things, scrutinize the arrangement of their options. A default succeeds to the degree that it is not noticed. The measure that most reliably changes behavior is therefore the one least likely to engage the deliberation through which people exercise the liberty the defenders invoke.

4This does not make nudges illegitimate, but it relocates the question of their legitimacy. The relevant test is not whether an alternative exists but whether the nudge could survive being made public. A cafeteria that posts a sign explaining that fruit is placed at eye level to encourage healthier eating, and a pension plan that tells employees plainly why enrollment is automatic, invite the very scrutiny that the nudge would otherwise bypass. If the measure keeps most of its effect once disclosed, that is some evidence that it works with the considered preferences of those it steers; if it loses most of its effect, that is evidence that it was working against them.

5Some defenders will object that disclosure would defeat the purpose—that a nudge announced is a nudge disarmed. The evidence on this point is less settled than either side tends to admit, but the objection, if true, would prove too much. A policy that can achieve its ends only so long as its targets remain unaware of it has more in common with manipulation than with the respectful guidance its champions describe. Public health has every reason to arrange choices thoughtfully. It has no reason to prefer arrangements that cannot bear the light.

In paragraph 2, the author:

Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

states the conclusion that the passage as a whole defends.: The passage's conclusion is the disclosure test in paragraphs 4–5.

presents experimental evidence that nudges change behavior.: Paragraph 2 offers reasoning about unavoidable arrangement, not experimental results.

sets out the strongest form of a view that the author goes on to qualify.: Correct. "The argument has force, and it is worth stating why" introduces the defenders' best case, which paragraph 3 then qualifies with "Yet."

concedes that nudges in fact eliminate people's alternatives.: The defenders' point is that alternatives remain; nothing is conceded about eliminating them.

Words like "Yet" at the start of the next paragraph show that the previous one set up a view to be qualified. Skill: Reasoning Within the Text.

Question 10

The main point of the passage is that:

Passage 6

1Among the tools that public health agencies have embraced in recent decades, few have been greeted as warmly as the "nudge": an alteration in the way choices are presented that steers people toward healthier options without forbidding any alternative. Place fruit at eye level in the cafeteria and the pastries at the back; make organ donation or retirement saving the default and require those who object to opt out. Defenders describe such measures as uniquely respectful of liberty. Nothing is banned, no one is fined, and anyone who wishes to choose otherwise remains free to do so. The appeal to officials is easy to see as well: such measures are cheap, require no new legislation, and spare them the unpopular work of prohibition.

2The argument has force, and it is worth stating why. Every choice is presented in some way; there is no neutral cafeteria in which food is arranged by no one for no purpose. If arrangement is unavoidable, the defenders reason, it may as well be arranged to promote health. Refusing to nudge is not abstaining from influence but merely choosing influence of a different, unexamined kind—whatever pleases the vendor, or whatever happened to be convenient for the staff who stocked the shelves.

3Yet the claim that nudges preserve liberty depends on a picture of freedom that is too thin. On that picture, I am free so long as the alternatives remain formally available—so long as I could, if I wished, reach past the fruit for the pastry. My freedom, so understood, is measured by the menu rather than by my attention to it. But nudges work precisely because people do not, in the ordinary course of things, scrutinize the arrangement of their options. A default succeeds to the degree that it is not noticed. The measure that most reliably changes behavior is therefore the one least likely to engage the deliberation through which people exercise the liberty the defenders invoke.

4This does not make nudges illegitimate, but it relocates the question of their legitimacy. The relevant test is not whether an alternative exists but whether the nudge could survive being made public. A cafeteria that posts a sign explaining that fruit is placed at eye level to encourage healthier eating, and a pension plan that tells employees plainly why enrollment is automatic, invite the very scrutiny that the nudge would otherwise bypass. If the measure keeps most of its effect once disclosed, that is some evidence that it works with the considered preferences of those it steers; if it loses most of its effect, that is evidence that it was working against them.

5Some defenders will object that disclosure would defeat the purpose—that a nudge announced is a nudge disarmed. The evidence on this point is less settled than either side tends to admit, but the objection, if true, would prove too much. A policy that can achieve its ends only so long as its targets remain unaware of it has more in common with manipulation than with the respectful guidance its champions describe. Public health has every reason to arrange choices thoughtfully. It has no reason to prefer arrangements that cannot bear the light.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

a nudge's legitimacy depends on whether it stays effective once disclosed.: Correct. Paragraph 4 states the author's test—"whether the nudge could survive being made public"—and paragraph 5 defends it.

nudges are illegitimate because they remove the alternatives people would otherwise have.: Misstates both sides: nudges forbid no alternative (paragraph 1), and the author says this "does not make nudges illegitimate."

public health agencies should stop trying to influence people's choices.: Contradicts paragraph 5: public health "has every reason to arrange choices thoughtfully."

nudges change behavior more reliably than bans or fines do.: The passage never compares nudges' effectiveness with bans or fines.

Find the claim the author builds toward and defends; here it is the disclosure test. Skill: Foundations of Comprehension.

Biological and Biochemical Foundations of Living Systems

Question 11

In a large population in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, 16% of individuals show the recessive phenotype for an autosomal trait. Among individuals with the dominant phenotype, about what percentage are heterozygous?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

  1. 1. , so and .
  2. 2. Heterozygotes: . Homozygous dominant: .
  3. 3. Dominant phenotype: .
  4. 4. Fraction heterozygous among them: , or 57%.

24%: Uses instead of and also skips restricting the group to dominant-phenotype individuals.

43%: This is the share of dominant-phenotype individuals who are homozygous dominant (), not heterozygous.

48%: This is the heterozygote frequency in the whole population (); the question asks only about dominant-phenotype individuals.

57%: Correct. , so and . Heterozygotes are and dominant-phenotype individuals are ; .

Start from (the recessive phenotype), take the square root, and use ; read the stem closely to see which group is the denominator. (Skill 2: scientific reasoning and problem-solving.)

Question 12

A viral protein that halts the host cell cycle

1Retroviruses carry two copies of a single-stranded RNA genome together with reverse transcriptase and integrase inside the virion. After the virus enters a cell, reverse transcriptase copies the genome into double-stranded DNA, which integrase inserts into a host chromosome as a provirus. Host RNA polymerase II then transcribes viral genes. Some retroviruses also package small accessory proteins in the virion along with the enzymes.

2Researchers studied accessory protein V of a primate retrovirus. Dividing human T cells were mock infected, infected with wild-type virus, or infected with a mutant virus that does not make V (ΔV). A fourth culture received wild-type virus plus a reverse transcriptase inhibitor added 1 h before infection; the inhibitor alone did not change the cell-cycle profile of uninfected cells. After 24 h, cells were stained with a fluorescent DNA-binding dye and analyzed by flow cytometry, which classifies each cell by DNA content as G1 (2n), S (between 2n and 4n) or G2/M (4n) (Table 1). Infection conditions were chosen so that more than 90% of cells in each infected culture received virus.

3Western blotting confirmed that V protein is present in purified virions. In infected cells, V was found bound to a phosphatase that normally removes inhibitory phosphates from the cyclin-dependent kinase that triggers entry into mitosis.

4Mutations arise often during retroviral replication because reverse transcriptase lacks proofreading activity. As a result, a single infected culture contains many genetically distinct viral variants, and most new mutations either reduce viral replication or have no detectable effect.

Table 1 Cell-cycle distribution of T cells 24 h after infection
ConditionG1 (%)S (%)G2/M (%)
Mock infected582022
Wild-type virus221365
ΔV virus562123
Wild-type virus + reverse transcriptase inhibitor301654
Means of three cultures; standard deviations were 3 percentage points or less.

When infected cultures are kept for several weeks in a low concentration of the reverse transcriptase inhibitor, viral variants with reduced sensitivity to it come to predominate. Which explanation is most consistent with paragraph 4?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

Random mutations conferring resistance are favored by selection: Correct. Error-prone reverse transcription (paragraph 4) produces random variants, a few of which resist the inhibitor; these replicate better in its presence, so their frequency rises over generations — natural selection.

The inhibitor directly causes mutations that confer resistance: Mutations arise at random from reverse transcriptase errors; the drug selects among variants rather than creating useful ones.

Resistance genes are transferred from host cells by conjugation: Conjugation is DNA transfer between bacteria and does not occur between human cells and viruses.

Each virion adapts to the inhibitor after repeated exposure: Individual virions do not acquire traits through exposure; populations change as variants are selected (a Lamarckian error).

Skill 1: knowledge of concepts — drug resistance in a population arises from preexisting random variation plus selection, accelerated by a high mutation rate.

Question 13

A viral protein that halts the host cell cycle

1Retroviruses carry two copies of a single-stranded RNA genome together with reverse transcriptase and integrase inside the virion. After the virus enters a cell, reverse transcriptase copies the genome into double-stranded DNA, which integrase inserts into a host chromosome as a provirus. Host RNA polymerase II then transcribes viral genes. Some retroviruses also package small accessory proteins in the virion along with the enzymes.

2Researchers studied accessory protein V of a primate retrovirus. Dividing human T cells were mock infected, infected with wild-type virus, or infected with a mutant virus that does not make V (ΔV). A fourth culture received wild-type virus plus a reverse transcriptase inhibitor added 1 h before infection; the inhibitor alone did not change the cell-cycle profile of uninfected cells. After 24 h, cells were stained with a fluorescent DNA-binding dye and analyzed by flow cytometry, which classifies each cell by DNA content as G1 (2n), S (between 2n and 4n) or G2/M (4n) (Table 1). Infection conditions were chosen so that more than 90% of cells in each infected culture received virus.

3Western blotting confirmed that V protein is present in purified virions. In infected cells, V was found bound to a phosphatase that normally removes inhibitory phosphates from the cyclin-dependent kinase that triggers entry into mitosis.

4Mutations arise often during retroviral replication because reverse transcriptase lacks proofreading activity. As a result, a single infected culture contains many genetically distinct viral variants, and most new mutations either reduce viral replication or have no detectable effect.

Table 1 Cell-cycle distribution of T cells 24 h after infection
ConditionG1 (%)S (%)G2/M (%)
Mock infected582022
Wild-type virus221365
ΔV virus562123
Wild-type virus + reverse transcriptase inhibitor301654
Means of three cultures; standard deviations were 3 percentage points or less.

Which explanation is best supported by the result for wild-type virus with the reverse transcriptase inhibitor?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

Arrest requires integration of the provirus before V can act: The inhibitor blocks reverse transcription and therefore integration, yet most of the arrest (54% G2/M) still occurs.

V delivered inside virions can arrest cells without viral gene expression: Correct. With reverse transcription blocked, no provirus forms and no viral genes are transcribed, but G2/M cells still rise to 54% (vs 22% mock); since V is packaged in virions (paragraph 3) and the inhibitor alone has no effect, incoming V is sufficient for most of the arrest.

V must be newly synthesized from the provirus to cause arrest: No provirus can form when reverse transcription is blocked, so new V synthesis is ruled out, yet cells still arrest.

The inhibitor itself arrests uninfected cells in G2/M: Paragraph 2 states that the inhibitor alone did not change the profile of uninfected cells.

Skill 2: scientific reasoning — blocking reverse transcription separates effects of virion-delivered proteins from those requiring provirus formation and viral gene expression.

Question 14

A viral protein that halts the host cell cycle

1Retroviruses carry two copies of a single-stranded RNA genome together with reverse transcriptase and integrase inside the virion. After the virus enters a cell, reverse transcriptase copies the genome into double-stranded DNA, which integrase inserts into a host chromosome as a provirus. Host RNA polymerase II then transcribes viral genes. Some retroviruses also package small accessory proteins in the virion along with the enzymes.

2Researchers studied accessory protein V of a primate retrovirus. Dividing human T cells were mock infected, infected with wild-type virus, or infected with a mutant virus that does not make V (ΔV). A fourth culture received wild-type virus plus a reverse transcriptase inhibitor added 1 h before infection; the inhibitor alone did not change the cell-cycle profile of uninfected cells. After 24 h, cells were stained with a fluorescent DNA-binding dye and analyzed by flow cytometry, which classifies each cell by DNA content as G1 (2n), S (between 2n and 4n) or G2/M (4n) (Table 1). Infection conditions were chosen so that more than 90% of cells in each infected culture received virus.

3Western blotting confirmed that V protein is present in purified virions. In infected cells, V was found bound to a phosphatase that normally removes inhibitory phosphates from the cyclin-dependent kinase that triggers entry into mitosis.

4Mutations arise often during retroviral replication because reverse transcriptase lacks proofreading activity. As a result, a single infected culture contains many genetically distinct viral variants, and most new mutations either reduce viral replication or have no detectable effect.

Table 1 Cell-cycle distribution of T cells 24 h after infection
ConditionG1 (%)S (%)G2/M (%)
Mock infected582022
Wild-type virus221365
ΔV virus562123
Wild-type virus + reverse transcriptase inhibitor301654
Means of three cultures; standard deviations were 3 percentage points or less.

The phosphatase described in paragraph 3 most likely activates which complex?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

Cyclin D–CDK4: Cyclin D–CDK4/6 acts in G1 to phosphorylate Rb, not at entry into mitosis.

Cyclin B–CDK1: Correct. Entry into mitosis is triggered when inhibitory phosphates are removed from CDK1 bound to cyclin B (maturation-promoting factor); a V-bound phosphatase unable to do this would hold cells in G2 with 4n DNA, as in Table 1.

Cyclin E–CDK2: Cyclin E–CDK2 drives the G1/S transition and initiation of DNA replication.

Cyclin A–CDK2: Cyclin A–CDK2 functions mainly during S phase, not as the mitotic trigger.

Skill 1: knowledge of concepts — dephosphorylation and activation of cyclin B–CDK1 (MPF) drives the G2-to-M transition.

Question 15

Which conclusion is best supported by Table 1?

A viral protein that halts the host cell cycle

1Retroviruses carry two copies of a single-stranded RNA genome together with reverse transcriptase and integrase inside the virion. After the virus enters a cell, reverse transcriptase copies the genome into double-stranded DNA, which integrase inserts into a host chromosome as a provirus. Host RNA polymerase II then transcribes viral genes. Some retroviruses also package small accessory proteins in the virion along with the enzymes.

2Researchers studied accessory protein V of a primate retrovirus. Dividing human T cells were mock infected, infected with wild-type virus, or infected with a mutant virus that does not make V (ΔV). A fourth culture received wild-type virus plus a reverse transcriptase inhibitor added 1 h before infection; the inhibitor alone did not change the cell-cycle profile of uninfected cells. After 24 h, cells were stained with a fluorescent DNA-binding dye and analyzed by flow cytometry, which classifies each cell by DNA content as G1 (2n), S (between 2n and 4n) or G2/M (4n) (Table 1). Infection conditions were chosen so that more than 90% of cells in each infected culture received virus.

3Western blotting confirmed that V protein is present in purified virions. In infected cells, V was found bound to a phosphatase that normally removes inhibitory phosphates from the cyclin-dependent kinase that triggers entry into mitosis.

4Mutations arise often during retroviral replication because reverse transcriptase lacks proofreading activity. As a result, a single infected culture contains many genetically distinct viral variants, and most new mutations either reduce viral replication or have no detectable effect.

Table 1 Cell-cycle distribution of T cells 24 h after infection
ConditionG1 (%)S (%)G2/M (%)
Mock infected582022
Wild-type virus221365
ΔV virus562123
Wild-type virus + reverse transcriptase inhibitor301654
Means of three cultures; standard deviations were 3 percentage points or less.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

V causes infected cells to accumulate before DNA replication begins: Misreads the table: G1 (2n) cells fall from 58% to 22% with wild-type virus.

V accelerates the progression of infected cells through S phase: The data show where cells accumulate, not how fast they move, and the large change is in G2/M, not S.

V causes infected cells to accumulate with replicated DNA before or during mitosis: Correct. Wild-type virus raises the 4n (G2/M) fraction from 22% to 65%, while ΔV virus does not (23%), so V causes cells that have completed DNA replication to accumulate in G2/M.

Infection arrests cells in G2/M whether or not V is expressed: The ΔV virus gives a profile like mock infection (23% vs 22% G2/M), so arrest requires V.

Skill 4: data-based reasoning — a rise in the 4n fraction means cells completed S phase but did not divide; compare with the deletion mutant to assign the effect to V.

Psychological, Social, and Biological Foundations of Behavior

Question 16

Fertility Decline and Schooling in a Lower-Middle-Income Country

1Demographers studying a lower-middle-income country compiled national registration data from 1900 to 2020 (Table 1) to examine its demographic transition. The crude birth rate (CBR) and crude death rate (CDR) are expressed per 1,000 population per year; the rate of natural increase equals CBR minus CDR. Migration into and out of the country was negligible throughout the period, and the population grew from about 6 million in 1900 to about 40 million in 2020.

2Over the same period, the country expanded public education. Enrollment of girls in secondary school rose from a small minority to nearly all eligible girls, and the average age at first marriage increased. Over the same decades, infant mortality fell sharply, and the labor force shifted from agriculture toward manufacturing and services. By 2020, women completed an average of 11 years of schooling, compared with fewer than 2 years in 1900.

3Two research teams interpreted the fertility decline differently. Team 1 argued that as the economy industrialized, mass schooling met society's need for literate workers, and smaller families followed as children shifted from contributing household labor to requiring years of costly education. In this account, education and the family adjusted to one another in ways that kept society stable. Team 2 argued that expanded schooling for girls was won through decades of struggle by women's organizations against political elites, and that fertility fell as women gained power over household decisions.

4Team 1 further concluded from Table 1 that each additional year of schooling a woman received caused her to have fewer children.

Table 1 Vital rates and female secondary enrollment
YearCBR (per 1,000)CDR (per 1,000)Female secondary enrollment (%)
190044385
192043309
1940422015
1960381128
198028852
200017881
2020111094

What is the most important limitation of using Table 1 to support Team 1's conclusion in paragraph 4?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

Crude birth rates cannot be interpreted for years in which crude death rates were also high.: CBR is calculated independently of CDR; high mortality does not invalidate birth-rate data.

Enrollment is reported as a percentage, so it cannot be compared across different years.: Percentages are standardized for population size and are well suited to comparisons across years.

Aggregate national data cannot show that more-educated women had fewer children.: Correct. Table 1 shows only a country-level association over time, during which many changes (industrialization, falling child mortality, later marriage) occurred together. Inferring an individual-level causal effect from such data is an ecological fallacy.

The seven time points are too few to detect any relationship between enrollment and births.: A strong inverse association is plainly visible across the seven time points; the problem is causal and individual-level inference, not detection.

Aggregate trends cannot establish individual-level causation; that requires individual data and control of concurrent changes. Skill 3: evaluating whether data support a causal claim.

Question 17

Fertility Decline and Schooling in a Lower-Middle-Income Country

1Demographers studying a lower-middle-income country compiled national registration data from 1900 to 2020 (Table 1) to examine its demographic transition. The crude birth rate (CBR) and crude death rate (CDR) are expressed per 1,000 population per year; the rate of natural increase equals CBR minus CDR. Migration into and out of the country was negligible throughout the period, and the population grew from about 6 million in 1900 to about 40 million in 2020.

2Over the same period, the country expanded public education. Enrollment of girls in secondary school rose from a small minority to nearly all eligible girls, and the average age at first marriage increased. Over the same decades, infant mortality fell sharply, and the labor force shifted from agriculture toward manufacturing and services. By 2020, women completed an average of 11 years of schooling, compared with fewer than 2 years in 1900.

3Two research teams interpreted the fertility decline differently. Team 1 argued that as the economy industrialized, mass schooling met society's need for literate workers, and smaller families followed as children shifted from contributing household labor to requiring years of costly education. In this account, education and the family adjusted to one another in ways that kept society stable. Team 2 argued that expanded schooling for girls was won through decades of struggle by women's organizations against political elites, and that fertility fell as women gained power over household decisions.

4Team 1 further concluded from Table 1 that each additional year of schooling a woman received caused her to have fewer children.

Table 1 Vital rates and female secondary enrollment
YearCBR (per 1,000)CDR (per 1,000)Female secondary enrollment (%)
190044385
192043309
1940422015
1960381128
198028852
200017881
2020111094

A third team proposes interviewing young women about how conversations with friends and relatives led them to define small families as "modern." This approach is most consistent with which theoretical paradigm?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

Rational choice theory: Rational choice theory models decisions as weighing costs and benefits, not as meanings negotiated through interaction.

Functionalism: Functionalism, like Team 1's account, explains social patterns by how institutions meet society's needs and maintain stability, a macro-level view.

Conflict theory: Conflict theory, like Team 2's account, emphasizes struggles over power and resources between groups.

Symbolic interactionism: Correct. The proposal focuses on how people create and share meanings ("modern" families) through everyday face-to-face interaction, the micro-level focus of symbolic interactionism.

Symbolic interactionism studies how meanings are constructed in social interaction; functionalism and conflict theory are macro-level paradigms. Skill 1: identifying a theoretical paradigm from a research approach.

Question 18

Fertility Decline and Schooling in a Lower-Middle-Income Country

1Demographers studying a lower-middle-income country compiled national registration data from 1900 to 2020 (Table 1) to examine its demographic transition. The crude birth rate (CBR) and crude death rate (CDR) are expressed per 1,000 population per year; the rate of natural increase equals CBR minus CDR. Migration into and out of the country was negligible throughout the period, and the population grew from about 6 million in 1900 to about 40 million in 2020.

2Over the same period, the country expanded public education. Enrollment of girls in secondary school rose from a small minority to nearly all eligible girls, and the average age at first marriage increased. Over the same decades, infant mortality fell sharply, and the labor force shifted from agriculture toward manufacturing and services. By 2020, women completed an average of 11 years of schooling, compared with fewer than 2 years in 1900.

3Two research teams interpreted the fertility decline differently. Team 1 argued that as the economy industrialized, mass schooling met society's need for literate workers, and smaller families followed as children shifted from contributing household labor to requiring years of costly education. In this account, education and the family adjusted to one another in ways that kept society stable. Team 2 argued that expanded schooling for girls was won through decades of struggle by women's organizations against political elites, and that fertility fell as women gained power over household decisions.

4Team 1 further concluded from Table 1 that each additional year of schooling a woman received caused her to have fewer children.

Table 1 Vital rates and female secondary enrollment
YearCBR (per 1,000)CDR (per 1,000)Female secondary enrollment (%)
190044385
192043309
1940422015
1960381128
198028852
200017881
2020111094

Based on Table 1, which description best fits the country's population pyramid in 2020?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

A wide base that narrows steeply with age, reflecting high fertility and high mortality: This expansive shape fits 1900, when both the CBR (44) and CDR (38) were high.

A wide base that narrows gradually with age, reflecting high fertility and falling mortality: This shape fits the stage 2 decades (about 1920–1960), when birth rates were still near 40 per 1,000.

An hourglass shape with few middle-aged adults, reflecting large-scale emigration: Paragraph 1 states migration was negligible, so there is no basis for a missing middle.

A narrow base with relatively wide middle and upper sections, reflecting low fertility and aging: Correct. By 2020 the CBR had fallen to 11 per 1,000 after decades of decline, so recent birth cohorts are small relative to the large cohorts born earlier, producing a constrictive, aging pyramid.

Sustained fertility decline narrows the base of the pyramid and shifts the population toward older ages. Skill 2: predicting age structure from vital rates.

Question 19

According to the demographic transition model, Table 1 indicates that the country was in stage 2 during which period?

Fertility Decline and Schooling in a Lower-Middle-Income Country

1Demographers studying a lower-middle-income country compiled national registration data from 1900 to 2020 (Table 1) to examine its demographic transition. The crude birth rate (CBR) and crude death rate (CDR) are expressed per 1,000 population per year; the rate of natural increase equals CBR minus CDR. Migration into and out of the country was negligible throughout the period, and the population grew from about 6 million in 1900 to about 40 million in 2020.

2Over the same period, the country expanded public education. Enrollment of girls in secondary school rose from a small minority to nearly all eligible girls, and the average age at first marriage increased. Over the same decades, infant mortality fell sharply, and the labor force shifted from agriculture toward manufacturing and services. By 2020, women completed an average of 11 years of schooling, compared with fewer than 2 years in 1900.

3Two research teams interpreted the fertility decline differently. Team 1 argued that as the economy industrialized, mass schooling met society's need for literate workers, and smaller families followed as children shifted from contributing household labor to requiring years of costly education. In this account, education and the family adjusted to one another in ways that kept society stable. Team 2 argued that expanded schooling for girls was won through decades of struggle by women's organizations against political elites, and that fertility fell as women gained power over household decisions.

4Team 1 further concluded from Table 1 that each additional year of schooling a woman received caused her to have fewer children.

Table 1 Vital rates and female secondary enrollment
YearCBR (per 1,000)CDR (per 1,000)Female secondary enrollment (%)
190044385
192043309
1940422015
1960381128
198028852
200017881
2020111094
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

1900 only, when birth and death rates were both at their highest: High birth and death rates with little growth define stage 1, not stage 2.

1920 to 1960: Correct. Stage 2 is marked by a sharp fall in death rates while birth rates stay high. From 1920 to 1960 the CDR fell from 30 to 11 while the CBR stayed near 40, so natural increase grew from 13 to 27 per 1,000.

1960 to 2000: In this period the CBR fell from 38 to 17 while the CDR stayed low, which defines stage 3.

2000 to 2020: Low birth and death rates with natural increase near zero (1 per 1,000 in 2020) define stage 4.

Demographic transition: stage 1 high birth and death rates; stage 2 death rates fall; stage 3 birth rates fall; stage 4 both low. Skill 2: applying a demographic model to data.

Question 20

In a study of a vaccination message, participants told the issue affected them personally changed their attitudes in response to strong arguments but not to a celebrity endorser. Participants told it did not affect them were swayed by the celebrity but not by argument quality. Based on the elaboration likelihood model, which further result is most likely?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

The low-relevance group's new attitudes will last longer, because they were formed with less effort.: Reverses the model: attitudes formed through little thought are weaker and fade faster.

Both groups' new attitudes will be equally durable, because both groups changed their attitudes.: Ignores the model's central claim that the route of persuasion determines how strong the attitude is.

The high-relevance group's new attitudes will better resist a later counter-message.: Correct. High relevance increased motivation to elaborate, so that group used the central route. Centrally formed attitudes are more durable, more resistant to counterpersuasion and more predictive of behavior.

The high-relevance group used the peripheral route, so its attitudes will soon return to baseline.: Swaps the routes: responding to argument quality rather than to a cue is the mark of the central route.

Elaboration likelihood model: high motivation and ability lead to central-route processing and lasting attitudes; low elaboration leads to peripheral-cue persuasion and weaker, shorter-lived attitudes. (Skill 2: scientific reasoning and problem-solving.)

Test yourself under exam conditions

Take the free MCAT test and get a score report by domain.

The full MCAT question bank is coming. Get an email when it launches.