10 free ABIM IM practice questions in the real exam format, covering the official content areas, with an explanation for every answer.
ABIM IM Practice Test 3Tutor mode
Question 1 of 10
Rheumatology and Orthopedics
A 62-year-old man is seen for follow-up 4 weeks after his third gout flare in the past year; each flare was treated with a short course of prednisone, and he is now asymptomatic. He has chronic kidney disease (eGFR 38 mL/min/1.73 m²) and hypertension. Medications are amlodipine and losartan. He drinks two beers per week. Blood pressure is 132/80 mm Hg; other vital signs are normal. There is a firm, nontender subcutaneous nodule over the right olecranon consistent with a tophus, and no joint effusion. Laboratory results are shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?